29 problems found
Let \(f(x) = \sqrt{x^2 + 1} - x\).
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In this question, \(\f^2(x)\) denotes \(\f(\f(x))\), \(\f^3(x)\) denotes \(\f( \f (\f(x)))\,\), and so on.
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The functions \(\s(x)\) (\(0\le x<1\)) and \(t(x)\) (\(x\ge0\)), and the real number \(p\), are defined by \[ \s(x) = \int_0^x \frac 1 {\sqrt{1-u^2}}\, \d u\;, \ \ \ \ t(x) = \int_0^x \frac 1 {1+u^2}\, \d u\;, \ \ \ \ p= 2 \int_0^\infty \frac 1 {1+u^2}\, \d u \;. \] For this question, do not evaluate any of the above integrals explicitly in terms of inverse trigonometric functions or the number \(\pi\).
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The function \(f\) satisfies the identity \begin{equation} f(x) +f(y) \equiv f(x+y) \tag{\(*\)} \end{equation} for all \(x\) and \(y\). Show that \(2\f(x)\equiv \f(2x)\) and deduce that \(f''(0)=0\). By considering the Maclaurin series for \(\f(x)\), find the most general function that satisfies \((*)\). [{\it Do not consider issues of existence or convergence of Maclaurin series in this question.}]
Solution: \begin{align*} &&2f(x) &\equiv f(x) + f(x) \\ &&&\equiv f(x+x) \\ &&&\equiv f(2x) \\ \\ \Rightarrow && 2f(0) &= f(0) \\ \Rightarrow && f(0) &= 0 \\ && f''(0) &= \lim_{h \to 0} \frac{f(2h)-2f(0)+f(-2h)}{h^2} \\ &&&= \lim_{h \to 0} \frac{f(2h)+f(-2h)}{h^2} \\ &&&= \lim_{h \to 0} \frac{f(0)}{h^2} \\ &&&= 0 \\ \Rightarrow && f''(0) &= 0 \end{align*} If \(f(x)\) satisfies the equation, then \(f'(x)\) satisfies the equation. In particular this means that \(f^{(n)}(0) = 0\) for all \(n \geq 2\). Therefore the only non-zero term in the Maclaurin series is \(x^1\). Therefore \(f(x) = cx\)
The positive numbers \(a\), \(b\) and \(c\) satisfy \(bc=a^2+1\). Prove that $$ \arctan\left(\frac1 {a+b}\right)+ \arctan\left(\frac1 {a+c}\right)= \arctan\left(\frac1 a \right). $$ The positive numbers \(p\), \(q\), \(r\), \(s\), \(t\), \(u\) and \(v\) satisfy $$ st = (p+q)^2 + 1 \;, \ \ \ \ \ \ uv=(p+r)^2 + 1 \;, \ \ \ \ \ \ qr = p^2+1\;. $$ Prove that $$ \arctan \! \!\left(\!\frac1 {p+q+s}\!\right) + \arctan \! \!\left(\!\frac 1{p+q+t}\!\right) + \arctan \! \!\left(\!\frac 1 {p+r+u}\!\right) + \arctan \! \!\left(\!\frac1 {p+r+v}\!\right) =\arctan \! \!\left( \! \frac1 p \! \right) . $$ Hence show that $$ \arctan\left(\frac1 {13}\right) +\arctan\left(\frac1 {21}\right) +\arctan\left(\frac1 {82}\right) +\arctan\left(\frac1 {187}\right) =\arctan\left(\frac1 {7}\right). $$ [Note that \(\arctan x\) is another notation for \( \tan^{-1}x \,.\,\)]
Solution: \begin{align*} && \tan \left (\arctan\left(\frac1 {a+b}\right)+ \arctan\left(\frac1 {a+c}\right) \right) &= \frac{\frac1{a+b}+\frac1{a+c}}{1-\frac{1}{(a+b)(a+c)}} \\ &&&= \frac{a+c+a+b}{(a+b)(a+c)-1} \\ &&&= \frac{2a+b+c}{a^2+ab+ac+bc-1} \\ &&&= \frac{2a+b+c}{2a^2+ab+ac} \\ &&&= \frac{1}{a} \\ &&&= \tan \arctan \frac1a\\ \Rightarrow && \arctan\left(\frac1 {a+b}\right)+ \arctan\left(\frac1 {a+c}\right) &= \arctan \frac{1}{a} + n \pi \end{align*} Since \(\arctan x \in (-\frac{\pi}{2}, \frac{\pi}{2})\) the LHS \(\in (0, \pi)\) so \(n = 0\). \begin{align*} a=p+q, b = s, c = t:&& \arctan \! \!\left(\!\frac1 {p+q+s}\!\right) + \arctan \! \!\left(\!\frac 1{p+q+t}\!\right) &= \arctan \left ( \frac{1}{p+q} \right) \\ a=p+r, b= u, c = v && \arctan \! \!\left(\!\frac 1 {p+r+u}\!\right) + \arctan \! \!\left(\!\frac1 {p+r+v}\!\right) &= \arctan \! \!\left(\!\frac1 {p+r}\!\right) \\ a = p, b = q, c = r:&& \arctan \left ( \frac{1}{p+q} \right) +\arctan \! \!\left(\!\frac1 {p+r}\!\right) &= \arctan \left ( \frac1p \right) \end{align*} and the result follows. Taking \(p = 7\) we need to solve \[ \begin{cases} q+s &= 6 \\ q+t &= 14 \\ r+u &= 75 \\ r+v &= 180 \end{cases} \] also satisfying \(qr = 50\) etc, so say \(q = 1, r = 50, s = 5, v=25\)
Show that if \(\displaystyle \int\frac1{u \, \f(u)}\; \d u = \F(u) + c\;\), then \(\displaystyle \int\frac{m}{x \, \f(x^m)} \;\d x = \F(x^m) + c\;\), where \(m\ne0\). Find:
Solution: \begin{align*} u = x^m, \d u = m x^{m-1} && \int \frac{m}{x f(x^m)} \d x &= \int \frac{m x^{m-1}}{uf(u)} \d x \\ &&&= \int \frac{1}{u f(u)} \d u \\ &&&= F(u) + c \\ &&&= F(x^m) + c \end{align*}
Show that \[ \int_0^a \frac{\sinh x}{2\cosh^2 x -1} \, \mathrm{d} x = \frac{1}{2 \sqrt{2}} \ln \l \frac{\sqrt{2}\cosh a -1}{\sqrt{2}\cosh a +1}\r + \frac{1}{2 \sqrt{2}} \ln \l \frac{\sqrt{2}+1}{\sqrt{2}-1}\r \] and find \[ \int_0^a \frac{\cosh x}{1+2\sinh^2 x} \, \mathrm{d} x \, . \] Hence show that \[ \int_0^\infty \frac{\cosh x - \sinh x}{1+2\sinh^2 x} \, \mathrm{d} x = \frac{\pi}{2\sqrt{2}} - \frac{1}{2 \sqrt{2}} \ln \l \frac{\sqrt{2}+1}{\sqrt{2}-1}\r \, . \] By substituting \(u = \e^x\) in this result, or otherwise, find \[ \int_1^\infty \frac{1}{1+u^4} \, \mathrm{d} u \, . \]
The line \(y=d\,\), where \(d>0\,\), intersects the circle \(x^2+y^2=R^2\) at \(G\) and \(H\). Show that the area of the minor segment \(GH\) is equal to \begin{equation} R^2\arccos \left({d \over R}\right) -d\sqrt{R^2 - d^2}\;. \tag {\(*\)} \end{equation} In the following cases, the given line intersects the given circle. Determine how, in each case, the expression \((*)\) should be modified to give the area of the minor segment.
Given that \(x+a>0\) and \(x+b>0\,\), and that \(b>a\,\), show that \[ \frac{\mathrm{d} \ }{\mathrm{d} x} \arcsin \left ( \frac{x + a }{ \ x + b} \right) = \frac{ \sqrt{\;b - a\;}} {( x + b ) \sqrt{ a + b + 2x} \ \ } \] and find $\displaystyle \frac{\mathrm{d} \ }{ \mathrm{d} x} \; \mathrm{arcosh} \left ( \frac{x + b }{ \ x + a} \right)$. Hence, or otherwise, integrate, for \(x > -1\,\),
Solution: \begin{align*} \frac{\mathrm{d} \ }{\mathrm{d} x} \arcsin \left ( \frac{x + a }{ \ x + b} \right ) &= \frac{1}{\sqrt{1-\left ( \frac{x + a }{ \ x + b} \right )^2}} \left ( \frac{b-a}{(x+b)^2} \right) \\ &= \frac{b-a}{(x+b)\sqrt{(x+b)^2-(x+a)^2}} \\ &= \frac{b-a}{(x+b)\sqrt{(b-a)(2x+b+a)}} \\ &= \frac{\sqrt{b-a}}{(x+b)\sqrt{a+b+2x}} \\ \\ \frac{\mathrm{d} \ }{ \mathrm{d} x} \; \mathrm{arcosh} \left ( \frac{x + b }{ \ x + a} \right) &= \frac{1}{\sqrt{\left ( \frac{x + b }{ \ x + a} \right)^2-1}} \left ( -\frac{b-a}{(x+a)^2} \right) \\ &= -\frac{b-a}{(x+a)\sqrt{(x+b)^2-(x+a)^2}} \\ &= -\frac{b-a}{(x+a)\sqrt{(b-a)(a+b+2x)}} \\ &= -\frac{\sqrt{b-a}}{(x+a)\sqrt{a+b+2x}} \end{align*}
Prove that \(\displaystyle \arctan a + \arctan b = \arctan \l {a + b \over 1-ab} \r\,\) when \(0 < a < 1\) and \(0 < b < 1\,\). Prove by induction that, for \(n \ge 1\,\), \[ \sum_{r = 1}^n \arctan \l {1 \over r^2 + r + 1} \r = \arctan \l {n \over n+2} \r \] and hence find \[ \sum_{r = 1}^\infty \arctan \l {1 \over r^2 + r + 1} \r\,. \] Hence prove that \[ \sum_{r = 1}^\infty \arctan \l {1 \over r^2 - r + 1} \r = {\pi \over 2}\,. \]
Solution: \begin{align*} && \arctan a &\in (0, \tfrac{\pi}{4}) \\ && \arctan b &\in (0, \tfrac{\pi}{4}) \\ \Rightarrow && \arctan a+\arctan b &\in (0, \tfrac{\pi}{2}) \\ && \tan \left ( \arctan a+\arctan b \right) &= \frac{\tan \arctan a + \tan \arctan b}{1 - \tan \arctan a \tan \arctan b} \\ &&&= \frac{a+b}{1-ab} \in (0, \infty) \\ \Rightarrow && \arctan \left ( \frac{a+b}{1-ab} \right) &\in (0, \tfrac{\pi}{2}) \\ \Rightarrow && \arctan a + \arctan b &= \arctan \left ( \frac{a+b}{1-ab} \right) \end{align*} Claim: \(\displaystyle \sum_{r = 1}^n \arctan \l {1 \over r^2 + r + 1} \r = \arctan \l {n \over n+2} \r\) Proof: (By Induction): Base case (\(n=1\)): \begin{align*} && LHS &= \sum_{r=1}^1 \arctan \left ( \frac{1}{r^2+r+1} \right) \\ &&&= \arctan \left ( \frac{1}{3} \right) \\ && RHS &= \arctan \left ( \frac{1}{1+2} \right)\\ &&&= \arctan \left ( \frac{1}{3} \right) = LHS \end{align*} Inductive step, suppose true for \(n = k\), ie \begin{align*} && \sum_{r = 1}^k \arctan \l {1 \over r^2 + r + 1} \r &= \arctan \l {k \over k+2} \r \\ \Rightarrow && \sum_{r = 1}^{k+1} \arctan \l {1 \over r^2 + r + 1} \r &= \sum_{r = 1}^k \arctan \l {1 \over r^2 + r + 1} \r+ \arctan \left ( \frac{1}{(k+1)^2+(k+1)+1} \right) \\ &&&= \arctan \l {k \over k+2} \r+\arctan \left ( \frac{1}{(k+1)^2+(k+1)+1} \right) \\ &&&= \arctan \left ( \frac{{k \over k+2}+\frac{1}{(k+1)^2+(k+1)+1} }{1-\frac{k}{k+2}\frac{1}{(k+1)^2+(k+1)+1} } \right) \\ &&&= \arctan \left ( \frac{k((k+1)^2+k+1+k)+(k+2) }{(k+2)((k+1)^2+(k+1)+1)-k} \right) \\ &&&= \arctan \left ( \frac{k^3+3k^2+4k+2 }{k^3+5k^2+8k+6} \right) \\ &&&= \arctan \left ( \frac{(k+1)(k^2+2k+2) }{(k+3)(k^2+2k+2)} \right) \\ &&&= \arctan \left ( \frac{k+1 }{(k+1)+2} \right) \\ \end{align*} Therefore it is true for \(n = k+1\), therefore it is true for all \(n \geq 1\) by the principle of mathematical induction. \begin{align*} && S &= \lim_{n \to \infty} \sum_{r = 1}^n \arctan \l {1 \over r^2 + r + 1} \r \\ &&&= \lim_{n \to \infty} \arctan \l \frac{n}{n+2} \r \\ &&&= \lim_{n \to \infty} \arctan \l \frac{1}{1+2/n} \r \\ &&&=\arctan\l \lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{1}{1+2/n} \r \\ &&&= \frac{\pi}{4} \end{align*} \begin{align*} && \sum_{r = 1}^\infty \arctan \l {1 \over r^2 - r + 1} \r &= \sum_{r = 0}^\infty \arctan \left( \frac{1}{ (r+1)^2 - (r+1) + 1} \right) \\ &&&= \sum_{r = 0}^\infty \arctan \left( \frac{1}{ r^2+r+1} \right) \\ &&&= \arctan \l \frac{1}{0^2+0+1} \r + \frac{\pi}{4} \\ &&&= \frac{\pi}{2} \end{align*}