39 problems found
The \(n\) positive numbers \(x_{1},x_{2},\dots,x_{n}\), where \(n\ge3\), satisfy $$ x_{1}=1+\frac{1}{x_{2}}\, ,\ \ \ x_{2}=1+\frac{1}{x_{3}}\, , \ \ \ \dots\; , \ \ \ x_{n-1}=1+\frac{1}{x_{n}}\, , $$ and also $$ \ x_{n}=1+\frac{1}{x_{1}}\, . $$ Show that
Solution:
Show that, if \(n\) is an integer such that $$(n-3)^3+n^3=(n+3)^3,\quad \quad {(*)}$$ then \(n\) is even and \(n^2\) is a factor of \(54\). Deduce that there is no integer \(n\) which satisfies the equation \((*)\). Show that, if \(n\) is an integer such that $$(n-6)^3+n^3=(n+6)^3, \quad \quad{(**)}$$ then \(n\) is even. Deduce that there is no integer \(n\) which satisfies the equation \((**)\).
Solution: \begin{align*} && n^3 &= (n+3)^3 - (n-3)^3 \\ &&&= n^3 + 9n^2+27n + 27 - (n^3 - 9n^2+27n-27) \\ &&&= 18n^2+54 \end{align*} Therefore since \(2 \mid 2(9n^2 + 27)\), \(2 \mid n^3 \Rightarrow 2 \mid n\), so \(n\) is even. Since \(n^2 \mid n^3\), \(n^2 \mid 54 = 2 \cdot 3^3\), therefore \(n = 1\) or \(n = 3\). \((1-3)^3 + 1^3 < 0 < (1+3)^3\). So \(n = 1\) doesn't work. \((3 - 3)^3 + 3^3 < (3+3)^3\) so \(n = 3\) doesn't work. Therefore there are no solutions. \begin{align*} && n^3 &= (n+6)^3 - (n-6)^3 \\ &&&= n^3 + 18n^2 + 180n + 6^3 - (n^3 - 18n^2 + 180n - 6^3 ) \\ &&&= 36n^2+2 \cdot 6^3 \end{align*} Therefore \(n^2 \mid 2 \cdot 6^3 = 2^4 \cdot 3^3\), therefore \(n = 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 12\). \(n = 1\), \(1^3 <36+2\cdot 6^3\) \(n = 2\), \(2^3 <36 \cdot 4 + 2 \cdot 6^3\) \(n = 3\), \(3^3 <36 \cdot 9 + 2 \cdot 6^3\) \(n = 4\), \(4^3 < 36 \cdot 16 + 2 \cdot 6^3\) \(n = 6\), \(6^3 < 36\cdot 6^2+ 2 \cdot 6^3\) \(n = 12\), \(12^3 < 36 \cdot 12^2 + 2 \cdot 6^3\) Therefore there are no solutions \(n\) to the equation. These are both special cases of Fermat's Last Theorem, when \(n = 3\)
For each positive integer \(n\), let \begin{align*} a_n&=\frac1{n+1}+\frac1{(n+1)(n+2)}+\frac1{(n+1)(n+2)(n+3)}+\cdots;\\ b_n&=\frac1{n+1}+\frac1{(n+1)^2}+\frac1{(n+1)^3}+\cdots. \end{align*}
The integers \(a,b\) and \(c\) satisfy \[ 2a^{2}+b^{2}=5c^{2}. \] By considering the possible values of \(a\pmod5\) and \(b\pmod5\), show that \(a\) and \(b\) must both be divisible by \(5\). By considering how many times \(a,b\) and \(c\) can be divided by \(5\), show that the only solution is \(a=b=c=0.\)
Solution: \begin{array}{c|ccccc} a & 0 & 1 & 2 & 3 & 4 \\ a^2 & 0 & 1 & 4 & 4 & 1 \end{array} Therefore \(a^2 \in \{0,1,4\}\) and so we can have \begin{array} $2a^2+b^2 & 0 & 1 & 4 \\ \hline 0 & 0 & 1 & 4 \\ 1 & 2 & 3 & 1 \\ 4 & 3 & 4 & 2 \end{array} Therefore the only solution must have \(5 \mid a,b\), but then we can write them has \(5a'\) and \(5b'\) so the equation becomes \(2\cdot25 a'^2 + 25b'^2 = 5c^2\) ie \(5 \mid c^2 \Rightarrow 5 \mid c\). But that means we can always divide \((a,b,c)\) by \(5\), which is clearly a contradiction if we consider the lowest power of \(5\) dividing \(a,b,c\) for any solution.
\textit{In this question, the argument of a complex number is chosen to satisfy \(0\leqslant\arg z<2\pi.\)} Let \(z\) be a complex number whose imaginary part is positive. What can you say about \(\arg z\)? The complex numbers \(z_{1},z_{2}\) and \(z_{3}\) all have positive imaginary part and \(\arg z_{1}<\arg z_{2}<\arg z_{3}.\) Draw a diagram that shows why \[ \arg z_{1}<\arg(z_{1}+z_{2}+z_{3})<\arg z_{3}. \] Prove that \(\arg(z_{1}z_{2}z_{3})\) is never equal to \(\arg(z_{1}+z_{2}+z_{3}).\)
Solution:
Six points \(A,B,C,D,E\) and \(F\) lie in three dimensional space and are in general positions, that is, no three are collinear and no four lie on a plane. All possible line segments joining pairs of points are drawn and coloured either gold or silver. Prove that there is a triangle whose edges are entirely of one colour. {[}\(Hint\): consider segments radiating from \(A.\){]} Give a sketch showing that the result is false for five points in general positions.
Solution: Consider the \(5\) segements radiating from \(A\). By the pigeonhole principle, at least \(3\) of them must be the same colour (say gold and say reaching \(B,C,D\)). If any of the segments joining any of \(B,C,D\) are gold then we have found a monochromatic gold triangle. But if none of them are gold, they are all silver, therefore \(BCD\) is a monochromatic silver triangle.
Give a careful argument to show that, if \(G_{1}\) and \(G_{2}\) are subgroups of a finite group \(G\) such that every element of \(G\) is either in \(G_{1}\) or in \(G_{2},\) then either \(G_{1}=G\) or \(G_{2}=G\). Give an example of a group \(H\) which has three subgroups \(H_{1},H_{2}\) and \(H_{3}\) such that every element of \(H\) is either in \(H_{1},H_{2}\) or \(H_{3}\) and \(H_{1}\neq H,H_{2}\neq H,H_{3}\neq H\).
Solution: Suppose \(|G_1|, |G_2| < |G|\) for sake of contraction. Then by Lagrange's theorem \(|G_1| \mid |G|\) and \(|G_2| \mid |G|\), so \(|G_1|, |G_2| \leq \frac{|G|}{2}\). But \(|G_1 \cup G_2| = |G_1| + |G_2| - |G_1 \cap G_2|\). \(|G_1 \cup G_2| = |G|\) by assumption, and \(e \in G_1 \cap G_2\), so \(|G_1 \cap G_2| \geq 1\). Therefore \(|G| = |G_1| + |G_2| - |G_1 \cap G_2| \leq \frac{|G|}{2} + \frac{|G|}{2} - 1 = |G| - 1 < |G|\), contradiction! Let \(H = K_4 = \{e, a, b, c\}\) with \(a^2 = b^2 = c^2 = e\). then \(H = \{e, a\} \cup \{e, b\} \cup \{e, c\}\) with all subgroups distinct