74 problems found
You need not consider the convergence of the improper integrals in this question. For \(p, q > 0\), define $$b(p,q) = \int_0^1 x^{p-1}(1-x)^{q-1} \, dx$$
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Let \(f(x) = \sqrt{x^2 + 1} - x\).
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For non-negative integers \(a\) and \(b\), let \[ \mathrm{I}(a,b) = \int_0^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \cos^a x \cos bx \; \mathrm{d}x. \]
By first multiplying the numerator and the denominator of the integrand by \((1 - \sin x)\), evaluate $$\int_0^{\frac{1}{4}\pi} \frac{1}{1 + \sin x} dx.$$ Evaluate also: $$\int_{\frac{1}{4}\pi}^{\frac{1}{3}\pi} \frac{1}{1 + \sec x} dx \quad \text{and} \quad \int_0^{\frac{1}{3}\pi} \frac{1}{(1 + \sin x)^2} dx.$$
Solution: \begin{align*} \int_0^{\frac{1}{4}\pi} \frac{1}{1 + \sin x} dx &= \int_0^{\frac{1}{4}\pi} \frac{1-\sin x}{1 - \sin^2 x} dx \\ &= \int_0^{\frac{1}{4}\pi} \frac{1-\sin x}{\cos^2 x} dx \\ &= \int_0^{\frac{1}{4}\pi} \sec^2 x - \sec x \tan x dx \\ &= \left [\tan x-\sec x \right]_0^{\frac{1}{4}\pi} \\ &= 2 - \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \end{align*} \begin{align*} \int_{\frac{1}{4}\pi}^{\frac{1}{3}\pi} \frac{1}{1 + \sec x} \d x &= \int_{\frac{1}{4}\pi}^{\frac{1}{3}\pi} \frac{1-\sec x}{1 - \sec^2 x} \d x \\ &= \int_{\frac{1}{4}\pi}^{\frac{1}{3}\pi} \frac{\sec x-1}{\tan^2 x} \d x \\ &= \int_{\frac{1}{4}\pi}^{\frac{1}{3}\pi} \cot x \cosec x-\cot^2 x\d x \\ &= \left [ -\cosec x +x+\cot x\right]_{\frac{1}{4}\pi}^{\frac{1}{3}\pi} \\ &= \l -\frac{2}{\sqrt3}+\frac{\pi}{3}+\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\r - \l-\sqrt{2}+\frac{\pi}{4}+1 \r \\ &= \frac{\pi}{12}-\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}+\sqrt{2}-1 \end{align*} \begin{align*} \int_0^{\frac{1}{3}\pi} \frac{1}{(1 + \sin x)^2} \d x &= \int_0^{\frac{1}{3}\pi} \frac{1-2\sin x+\sin^2x}{(1-\sin^2 x)^2} \d x \\ &= \int_0^{\frac{1}{3}\pi} \frac{1-2\sin x+\sin^2x}{\cos^4 x} \d x \\ \end{align*} Splitting this up into: \begin{align*} \int_0^{\frac{1}{3}\pi} \frac{-2\sin x}{\cos^4 x} \d x &= -\frac23 \left [ \frac{1}{\cos^3 x}\right]_0^{\frac{1}{3}\pi} \\ &= -\frac{16}3+\frac23 \\ &= -\frac{14}3 \end{align*} and \begin{align*} && \int_0^{\frac{1}{3}\pi} \frac{1+\sin^2x}{\cos^4 x} \d x &= \int_0^{\frac{1}{3}\pi} (\sec^2 x + \tan^2 x) \sec^2 x \d x \\ &&&= \int_0^{\frac{1}{3}\pi} (1+ 2\tan^2 x) \sec^2 x \d x \\ u = \tan x, \d u = \sec^2 x \d x&&&= \int_0^{\sqrt{3}}(1+2u^2) \d u \\ &&&= \left [u + \frac23 u^3 \right]_0^{\sqrt{3}} \\ &&&= \sqrt{3} + 2\sqrt{3} \\ &&&= 3\sqrt{3} \end{align*} And so our complete integral is: \[ \int_0^{\frac{1}{3}\pi} \frac{1}{(1 + \sin x)^2} \d x = 3\sqrt{3} - \frac{14}3\]
The function f satisfies \(f(0) = 0\) and \(f'(t) > 0\) for \(t > 0\). Show by means of a sketch that, for \(x > 0\), $$\int_0^x f(t) \, dt + \int_0^{f(x)} f^{-1}(y) \, dy = xf(x).$$
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In this question, you should ignore issues of convergence.
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Note: In this question you may use without proof the result \( \dfrac{\d \ }{\d x}\big(\!\arctan x \big) = \dfrac 1 {1+x^2}\,\). Let \[ I_n = \int_0^1 x^n \arctan x \, \d x \;, \] where \(n=0\), 1, 2, 3, \(\ldots\) .
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In this question, you are not permitted to use any properties of trigonometric functions or inverse trigonometric functions. The function \(\T\) is defined for \(x>0\) by \[ \T(x) = \int_0^x \! \frac 1 {1+u^2} \, \d u\,, \] and $\displaystyle T_\infty = \int_0^\infty \!\! \frac 1 {1+u^2} \, \d u\,$ (which has a finite value).
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Show that \[ \int_0^a \f(x) \d x= \int _0^a \f(a-x) \d x\,, \tag{\(*\)} \] where f is any function for which the integrals exist.
Solution: \begin{align*} u = a-x, \d u = - \d x: && \int_0^a f(x) \d x &= \int_{u=a}^{u=0} f(a-u) (-1) \d u \\ &&&= \int_0^a f(a-u) \d u \\ &&&= \int_0^a f(a-x) \d x \end{align*}
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