Year: 1991
Paper: 2
Question Number: 6
Course: LFM Pure
Section: Integration
No solution available for this problem.
Difficulty Rating: 1600.0
Difficulty Comparisons: 0
Banger Rating: 1485.5
Banger Comparisons: 1
Show by means of a sketch, or otherwise, that if $0\leqslant\mathrm{f}(y)\leqslant\mathrm{g}(y)$
for $0\leqslant y\leqslant x$ then
\[
0\leqslant\int_{0}^{x}\mathrm{f}(y)\,\mathrm{d}y\leqslant\int_{0}^{x}\mathrm{g}(y)\,\mathrm{d}y.
\]
Starting from the inequality $0\leqslant\cos y\leqslant1,$ or otherwise,
prove that if $0\leqslant x\leqslant\frac{1}{2}\pi$ then $0\leqslant\sin x\leqslant x$
and $\cos x\geqslant1-\frac{1}{2}x^{2}.$ Deduce that
\[
\frac{1}{1800}\leqslant\int_{0}^{\frac{1}{10}}\frac{x}{(2+\cos x)^{2}}\,\mathrm{d}x\leqslant\frac{1}{1797}.
\]
Show further that if $0\leqslant x\leqslant\frac{1}{2}\pi$ then $\sin x\geqslant x-\frac{1}{6}x^{3}.$
Hence prove that
\[
\frac{1}{3000}\leqslant\int_{0}^{\frac{1}{10}}\frac{x^{2}}{(1-x+\sin x)^{2}}\,\mathrm{d}x\leqslant\frac{2}{5999}.
\]