You play the following game. You throw a six-sided fair die repeatedly. You may choose to stop after any throw, except that you must stop if you throw a 1. Your score is the number obtained on your last throw. Determine the strategy that you should adopt in order to maximize your expected score, explaining your reasoning carefully.
Solution: Once you have thrown, all previous throws are irrelevant so the only thing which can affect your decision is the current throw. Therefore the strategy must consist of a list of states we re-throw from, and a list of states we stick on. It must also be the case that if we stick on \(k\) we stick on \(k+1\) (otherwise we can improve our strategy by switching those two values around). Therefore we can form a table of our expected score: \begin{array}{c|c|c} \text{stop on} & \text{possible outcomes} & \E[\text{score}] \\ \hline \geq 2 & \{1,2,3,4,5,6\} & \frac{21}{6} = 3.5 \\ \geq 3 & \{1,3,4,5,6\} & \frac{19}{5} = 3.8 \\ \geq 4 & \{1,4,5,6\} & \frac{16}{4} = 4 \\ \geq 5 & \{1,5,6\} & \frac{12}{3} = 4 \\ =6 & \{1,6\} & \frac{7}{2} = 3.5 \end{array} Therefore the optimal strategy is to stop on \(4\) or higher. If we cared about variance we might look at the variance of the two best strategies, \(4\) or higher has a variance of \(\frac{1+16+25+36}{4} - 16 = 3.5\) and \(5\) or higher has a variance of \(\frac{1+25+36}3 - 16 = \frac{14}3 > 3.5\) so \(4\) or higher is probably better in most scenarios.
Consider the cubic equation \[ x^3-px^2+qx-r=0\;, \] where \(p\ne0\) and \(r\ne 0\).
Solution:
Justify, by means of a sketch, the formula $$ \lim_{n\rightarrow\infty}\left\{{1\over n}\sum_{m=1}^n \f(1+m/n)\right\} = \int_1^2 \f(x)\,\d x \,. $$ Show that $$ \lim_{n\rightarrow\infty}\left\{{1\over n+1} + {1\over n+2} + \cdots + {1\over n+n}\right\} = \ln 2 \,. $$ Evaluate $$ \lim_{n\rightarrow\infty}\left\{{n\over n^2+1} + {n\over n^2+4} + \cdots + {n\over n^2+n^2}\right\}\,. $$
Solution:
A polyhedron is a solid bounded by \(F\) plane faces, which meet in \(E\) edges and \(V\) vertices. You may assume {\em Euler's formula}, that \(V-E+F=2\). In a regular polyhedron the faces are equal regular \(m\)-sided polygons, \(n\) of which meet at each vertex. Show that $$ F={4n\over h} \,, $$ where \(h=4-(n-2)(m-2)\). By considering the possible values of \(h\), or otherwise, prove that there are only five regular polyhedra, and find \(V\), \(E\) and \(F\) for each.
The sequence \(u_0\), \(u_1\), \(u_2\), ... is defined by $$ u_0=1,\hspace{0.2in} u_1=1, \quad u_{n+1}=u_n+u_{n-1} \hspace{0.2in}{\rm for}\hspace{0.1in}n \ge 1\,. $$ Prove that $$ u^2_{n+2} + u^2_{n-1} = 2( u^2_{n+1} + u^2_n ) \,. $$ Using induction, or otherwise, prove the following result: \[ u_{2n} = u^2_n + u^2_{n-1} \quad \mbox{ and }\quad u_{2n+1} = u^2_{n+1} - u^2_{n-1} \] for any positive integer \(n\).
Solution: Claim: \(u^2_{n+2} + u^2_{n-1} = 2( u^2_{n+1} + u^2_n )\) Proof: (By Induction). (Base Case): \(n = 1\) \begin{align*} && LHS &= u_{n+2}^2 + u_{n-1}^2 \\ &&&= u_3^2 + u_0^2 \\ &&&= 3^2 + 1^2 = 10\\ && RHS &= 2(u_{n+1}^2+u_n^2) \\ &&&= 2(2^2 + 1^2) \\ &&&= 10 \end{align*} Therefore the base case is true. (Inductive hypothesis) Suppose \(u^2_{n+2} + u^2_{n-1} = 2( u^2_{n+1} + u^2_n )\) is true for some \(n = k\), ie \(u^2_{k+2} + u^2_{k-1} = 2( u^2_{k+1} + u^2_k )\), the consider \(n = k+1\) \begin{align*} && LHS &= u_{k+1+2}^2 + u_{k+1-1}^2 \\ &&&= (u_{k+1}+u_{k+2})^2+u_k^2 \\ &&&= u_{k+2}^2+u_{k+1}^2+ u_k^2 + 2u_{k+1}u_{k+2} \\ &&&= u_{k+2}^2+u_{k+1}^2+ u_k^2 + 2u_{k+1}(u_{k+1}+u_k) \\ &&&= u_{k+2}^2 + u_{k+1}^2+u_k^2+2u_{k+1}^2+2u_{k+1}u_k \\ &&&= u_{k+1}^2+2u_{k+1}^2+ u_{k+1}^2+u_k^2+2u_{k+1}u_k \\ &&&= u_{k+2}^2+2u_{k+1}^2+ (u_{k+1}+u_k)^2 \\ &&&= u_{k+2}^2+2u_{k+1}^2+ u_{k+2}^2 \\ &&&=2(u_{k+2}^2+u_{k+1}^2) \\ &&&= RHS \end{align*} Therefore it is true for \(n = k+1\). Therefore by the principle of mathematical induction it is true for all \(n \geq 1\) Claim: $ u_{2n} = u^2_n + u^2_{n-1} \quad \mbox{ and }\quad u_{2n+1} = u^2_{n+1} - u^2_{n-1} $ Proof: Notice that \(\begin{pmatrix}u_{n+1} \\ u_n \end{pmatrix}= \begin{pmatrix} 1 & 1 \\ 1 & 0 \end{pmatrix}^n \begin{pmatrix}1 \\1 \end{pmatrix}\), in particular \begin{align*} && \begin{pmatrix}u_{n}& u_{n-1} \\ u_{n-1} & u_{n-2} \end{pmatrix}&= \begin{pmatrix} 1 & 1 \\ 1 & 0 \end{pmatrix}^{n} \\ \Rightarrow && \begin{pmatrix}u_{2n}& u_{2n-1} \\ u_{2n-1} & u_{2n-2} \end{pmatrix}&= \begin{pmatrix} 1 & 1 \\ 1 & 0 \end{pmatrix}^{2n} \\ &&&= \begin{pmatrix} 1 & 1 \\ 1 & 0 \end{pmatrix}^{n} \begin{pmatrix} 1 & 1 \\ 1 & 0 \end{pmatrix}^{n} \\ &&&=\begin{pmatrix}u_{n}& u_{n-1} \\ u_{n-1} & u_{n-2} \end{pmatrix}\begin{pmatrix}u_{n}& u_{n-1} \\ u_{n-1} & u_{n-2} \end{pmatrix}\\ &&&= \begin{pmatrix}u_{n}^2+u_{n-1}^2& u_{n-1}(u_n+u_{n-2}) \\ u_{n-1}(u_n+u_{n-2}) & u_{n-1}^2+u_{n-2}^2 \end{pmatrix} \end{align*} Therefore \(u_{2n} = u_{n}^2+u_{n-1}^2\) and \(u_{2n+1} = u_n(u_{n+1}+u_{n-1}) =(u_{n+1}-u_{n-1})(u_{n+1}-u_{n-1}) = u_{n+1}^2-u_{n-1}^2\)
A closed curve is given by the equation $$ x^{2/n} + y^{2/n} = a^{2/n} \eqno(*) $$ where \(n\) is an odd integer and \(a\) is a positive constant. Find a parametrization \(x=x(t)\), \(y=y(t)\) which describes the curve anticlockwise as \(t\) ranges from \(0\) to \(2\pi\). Sketch the curve in the case \(n=3\), justifying the main features of your sketch. The area \(A\) enclosed by such a curve is given by the formula $$ A= {1\over 2} \int_0^{2\pi} \left[ x(t) {\d y(t)\over \d t} - y(t) {\d x(t)\over \d t} \right] \,\d t \,. $$ Use this result to find the area enclosed by (\(*\)) for \(n=3\).
Let \(a\) be a non-zero real number and define a binary operation on the set of real numbers by $$ x*y = x+y+axy \,. $$ Show that the operation \(*\) is associative. Show that \((G,*)\) is a group, where \(G\) is the set of all real numbers except for one number which you should identify. Find a subgroup of \((G,*)\) which has exactly 2 elements.
Solution: Claim: \(*\) is associative. Proof: Then \(x*(y*z) = x*(y+z+ayz) = x + (y+z+ayz) + ax(y+z+ayz) = x + y + z + a(yz + xy + zx) + a^2xyz\) and \((x*y)*z = (x+y+axy)*z = (x+y+axy) + z+ a(x+y+axy)z = x + y + z + a(yz + xy + zx) + a^2xyz\) so \(x*(y*z) = (x*y)*z\) and we are done. Let \(G = \mathbb{R} \setminus \{-\frac1{a} \}\) In order to show that \((G, *)\) is a group we need to check:
The function \(y(x)\) is defined for \(x\ge0\) and satisfies the conditions \[ y=0 \mbox{ \ \ and \ \ } \frac{\d y}{\d x}=1 \mbox{ \ \ at \(x=0\)}. \] When \(x\) is in the range \(2(n-1)\pi< x <2n\pi\), where \(n\) is a positive integer, \(y(t)\) satisfies the differential equation $$ {\d^2y \over \d x^2} + n^2 y=0. $$ Both \(y\) and \(\displaystyle \frac{\d y}{\d x} \) are continuous at \(x=2n\pi\) for \(n=0,\; 1,\;2,\; \ldots\;\).
The gravitational force between two point particles of masses \(m\) and \(m'\) is mutually attractive and has magnitude $$ {G m m' \over r^2}\,, $$ where \(G\) is a constant and \(r\) is the distance between them. A particle of unit mass lies on the axis of a thin uniform circular ring of radius \(r\) and mass \(m\), at a distance \(x\) from its centre. Explain why the net force on the particle is directed towards the centre of the ring and show that its magnitude is $$ {G m x \over (x^2 + r^2)^{3/2}} \,. $$ The particle now lies inside a thin hollow spherical shell of uniform density, mass \(M\) and radius \(a\), at a distance \(b\) from its centre. Show that the particle experiences no gravitational force due to the shell. %Explain without calculation the effect on this result if %the shell has finite thickness \(x\).