Problems

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Solution: Suppose \(z^7 = 1\), then we can write \(z = \cos \theta + i \sin \theta\) and we must have that: \begin{align*} 0 &= \textrm{Im}((\cos \theta + i \sin \theta)^7) \\ &= \binom{7}{6}\cos^6 \theta \sin \theta - \binom{7}{4} \cos^4 \theta \sin^3 \theta + \binom{7}{2} \cos^2 \theta \sin^5 \theta - \sin^7 \theta \\ &= 7 \cos^6 \sin \theta - 35 \cos^4 \theta \sin ^3 \theta + 21 \cos^2 \theta \sin^5 \theta - \sin^7 \theta \\ &= -\cos^7 \theta \l \tan^7 \theta - 21 \tan^5 \theta + 35 \tan^3 \theta - 7 \tan \theta\r \\ &= \cos^7 \theta \cdot t (t^7-21t^4+35t^2-7) \end{align*} Where \(t = \tan \theta\). So if \(z\) is a root of \(z^7 = 1\) and \(\cos \theta \neq 0, \tan \theta \neq 0\) then \(t\) is a root of the equation. Thererefore the roots are: \(\tan \frac{2\pi k}{7}\) where \(k = 1, 2, \ldots 6\). Noting that \(\tan \frac{\pi}7 = -\tan \frac{6\pi}{7}, \tan \frac{3\pi}{7} = -\tan \frac{4 \pi}{7}, \tan \frac{5\pi}{7} = -\tan \frac{2 \pi}{7}\) we can conclude that: \begin{align*} && 7 &= \prod_{k=1}^k \tan \frac{k \pi}{6} \\ &&&= \l \tan\frac{2\pi}{7}\tan\frac{4\pi}{7}\tan\frac{6\pi}{7} \r^2 \\ \Rightarrow&& \pm \sqrt{7} &= \tan\frac{2\pi}{7}\tan\frac{4\pi}{7}\tan\frac{6\pi}{7} \end{align*} However, we know that \(\tan \frac{2\pi}{7}\) is positive, \(\tan \frac{4\pi}{7},\tan \frac{6\pi}{7}\) are negative, therefore the result must be positive, ie \(+\sqrt{7}\) Using a similar method, we notice that: \begin{align*} 0 &= \textrm{Im} \l (\cos \theta + i \sin \theta)^n \r \\ &= \cos^n \theta \cdot t (t^{n-1} + \cdots - \binom{n}{n-1}) \end{align*} Therefore \(\prod_{k=0}^{n-1} \tan \frac{k \pi}{n} = n\) and since \(\tan \frac{(2k+1) \pi}{n} = \tan \frac{(n-2k-1)\pi}{n}\) is a map of all the odd numbers to the even numbers (and vice versa) when \(n\) is odd. We also know that the terms less where \(\tan \theta\) has \(\theta < \frac{\pi}{2}\) are positive, and the others even, we can determine the signs: \begin{align*} \tan \frac{2 \pi}{9} \tan \frac{4 \pi}{9} \tan \frac{6 \pi}{9} \tan \frac{8 \pi}{9} & = 3 \\ \tan \frac{2 \pi}{11} \tan \frac{4 \pi}{11} \tan \frac{6 \pi}{11} \tan \frac{8 \pi}{11} \tan \frac{10 \pi}{11} &= -\sqrt{11} \end{align*}

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Solution:

1. Notice that \(f(x) = x - \tanh x\) has \(f'(x) = 1-\textrm{sech}^2 x = \tanh^2 x > 0\) so \(f(x)\) is strictly increasing on \((0, \infty)\) and \(f(0) = 0\) therefore \(f(x)\) is positive for all \(x\) positive
2. Let \(f(x) = x\sinh x-2\cosh x+2\) then \(f'(x) = \sinh x +x \cosh x - 2 \sinh x = x \cosh x -\sinh x = \cosh x ( x - \tanh x) > 0\) by the first part. \(f(0) = 0\) so \(f(x)\) is positive for all \(x\) positive.
3. Let \(f(x) = 2x\cosh2x-3\sinh2x+4x\) then \begin{align*} f'(x) &= 2\cosh 2x +4x\sinh 2x - 6 \cosh 2x + 4 \\ &= 4( x\sinh 2x-\cosh 2x +1) \\ &= 4(x2\cosh x \sinh x -2\cosh^2x ) \\ &= 8 \cosh^2 x (x - \tanh x) \end{align*} Which is always positive when \(x\) > 0, \(f(0) = 0\) so \(f(x) > 0\) for all positive \(x\).

Let \(f(x) = \frac{x(\cosh x)^{\frac{1}{3}}}{\sinh x}\) then \begin{align*} f'(x) &= \frac{(\cosh x)^{\frac13}\sinh x+\frac13 x \cosh^{-\frac23} x \sinh^2 x - x(\cosh x)^{\frac13} \cosh x}{\sinh^2 x} \\ &= \frac{\cosh x \sinh x + \frac13 x \sinh^2 x - x \cosh^2 x}{\cosh x^{\frac23} x \sinh^2 x} \\ &= \frac{3\cosh x \sinh x + x( \sinh^2 x - 3 \cosh^2 x)}{3\cosh x^{\frac23} x \sinh^2 x} \\ &= \frac{\frac32 \sinh 2x + x( -2\cosh 2x - 2)}{3\cosh x^{\frac23} x \sinh^2 x} \\ &= \frac{3 \sinh 2x -4x\cosh 2x - 4x}{6\cosh x^{\frac23} x \sinh^2 x} \\ \end{align*} which from the earlier part is always negative.

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Solution: \begin{align*} I &=\int_{1}^{2}\frac{(2-2x+x^{2})^{k}}{x^{k+1}}\,\mathrm{d}x \\ u = x-1 &, \quad \d u = \d x \\ &= \int_{u = 0}^{u=1} \frac{(u^2+1)^k}{(u+1)^{k+1}} \d u \\ &= \boxed{\int_0^1 \frac{(1+x^2)^k}{(1+x)^{k+1}} \d x} \\ x = \tan \theta &, \quad \d x = \sec^2 \theta \d \theta \\ &= \int_{\theta = 0}^{\theta = \pi/4} \frac{\sec^{2k+2} \theta }{(1 + \tan \theta)^{k+1}} \d \theta \\ &= \int_0^{\pi/4} \frac{\d \theta}{\cos^{2k+2} \theta (\frac{\sin \theta + \cos \theta}{\cos \theta})^{k+1}} \\ &= \int_0^{\pi/4} \frac{\d \theta}{\cos^{k+1} \theta ({\sin \theta + \cos \theta})^{k+1}} \\ &= \int_0^{\pi/4} \frac{\d \theta}{\cos^{k+1} \theta (\sqrt{2} \cos (\frac{\pi}{4} - \theta))^{k+1}} \\ I &= \boxed{ \int_0^{\pi/4} \frac{\d \theta}{(\sqrt{2}\cos \theta \cos (\frac{\pi}{4} - \theta))^{k+1}}} \\ \end{align*} Since \(f(\theta) = \cos \theta \cos (\frac{\pi}{4} - \theta)\) is symmetric about \(\frac{\pi}{8}\) this integral is twice the integral to \(\frac{\pi}{8}\). \(\tan 2 \theta = \frac{2\tan \theta}{1 - \tan^2 \theta} \Rightarrow 1 = \frac{2 \tan \frac{\pi}{8}}{1 - \tan^2 \frac{\pi}{8}} \Rightarrow \tan \frac{\pi}{8} = \sqrt{2}-1\). Therefore, using the same substitution we must have: \[ I=2\int_{0}^{\sqrt{2}-1}\frac{(1+x^{2})^{k}}{(1+x)^{k+1}}\,\mathrm{d}x \] Let \(u = x^2\), then \(\d u = 2 x\d x\) \begin{align*} \int_{1}^{\sqrt{2}}\left(\frac{2-2x^{2}+x^{4}}{x^{2}}\right)^{k}\frac{1}{x}\,\mathrm{d}x &= \int_{u = 1}^{u = 2} \l \frac{2-2u+u^2}{u}\r^k \frac{1}{2u} \d u \\ &= \frac12 I \\ &= \int_{0}^{\sqrt{2}-1}\frac{(1+x^{2})^{k}}{(1+x)^{k+1}}\,\mathrm{d}x \\ u = 1+x & \quad \d u = \d x \\ &= \int_1^{\sqrt{2}} \frac{(1+(u-1)^2)^k}{u^{k+1}} \d u \\ &= \int_{1}^{\sqrt{2}}\left(\frac{2-2u+u^{2}}{u}\right)^{k}\frac{1}{u}\,\mathrm{d}x \\ &= \int_{1}^{\sqrt{2}}\left(\frac{2-2x+x^{2}}{x}\right)^{k}\frac{1}{x}\,\mathrm{d}x \end{align*}

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Solution: If the population in a given year is \(\mathbf{v} = \begin{pmatrix}A \\ B \end{pmatrix}\) then the population the next year is \(\mathbf{Mv}\) where \(\mathbf{M} = \begin{pmatrix} \frac14 & \frac34 \\ -\frac12 &\frac32 \end{pmatrix}\) The ratio is the same if \(\mathbf{Mv} = \lambda \mathbf{v}\) ie if \(\mathbf{v}\) is an eigenvector of \(\mathbf{M}\). The eigenvalues will be \(1\) and \(\frac38\) (by inspection) so we should be able to solve for the eigenvectors: \(\lambda = 1\) we have \(\frac14A + \frac34B = A \Rightarrow A = B\) a ratio of \(1\). \(\lambda = \frac38\) we have \(\frac14A + \frac34B = \frac38A \Rightarrow \frac34B = \frac18A \Rightarrow A = 6B\) a ratio of \(6\). If we write \(\begin{pmatrix} a \\ b \end{pmatrix}\) as \(x_1 \begin{pmatrix} 1 \\ 1 \end{pmatrix} + x_6 \begin{pmatrix} 6 \\ 1 \end{pmatrix}\) we find that after \(n\) years, we have: \(x_1 \begin{pmatrix} 1 \\ 1 \end{pmatrix} + \l \frac38 \r^n x_6 \begin{pmatrix} 6 \\ 1 \end{pmatrix}\) for the populations. Therefore if \(x_1\) is \(< 0\) then in finite time we will end up with one population being 0. If \(x_1 > 0\) are positive we tend to a finite population and if \(x_1 = 0\) then over time the population will tend to \(0\) at infinity. In our diagram these areas correspond to (red) - die out in finite time, (green) population stable and the thick black line where the population goes extinct as \(t \to \infty\)

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Solution: Suppose \(|G_1|, |G_2| < |G|\) for sake of contraction. Then by Lagrange's theorem \(|G_1| \mid |G|\) and \(|G_2| \mid |G|\), so \(|G_1|, |G_2| \leq \frac{|G|}{2}\). But \(|G_1 \cup G_2| = |G_1| + |G_2| - |G_1 \cap G_2|\). \(|G_1 \cup G_2| = |G|\) by assumption, and \(e \in G_1 \cap G_2\), so \(|G_1 \cap G_2| \geq 1\). Therefore \(|G| = |G_1| + |G_2| - |G_1 \cap G_2| \leq \frac{|G|}{2} + \frac{|G|}{2} - 1 = |G| - 1 < |G|\), contradiction! Let \(H = K_4 = \{e, a, b, c\}\) with \(a^2 = b^2 = c^2 = e\). then \(H = \{e, a\} \cup \{e, b\} \cup \{e, c\}\) with all subgroups distinct

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Solution: The plane is the same as the plane \((\mathbf{r} - \mathbf{a}) \cdot \mathbf{a} = 0\), ie the plane through \(\mathbf{a}\) whose normal is parallel to \(\mathbf{a}\) The distance from \(\mathbf{r}\) to the plane therefore is \(\lambda\) where \(\mathbf{r}+\lambda \frac{1}{a}\mathbf{a}\) must be on the plane, ie \((\mathbf{r}+\frac{\lambda}{a} \mathbf{a} - \mathbf{a})\cdot \mathbf{a} = 0 \Rightarrow \lambda = \frac{a^2-\mathbf{a} \cdot \mathbf{r}}{a}\) But if \(\mathbf{a} \cdot \mathbf{r} = a^2 - ar\) then \(\lambda = r\), ie the distance to the plane is the same as the distance to the origin. \(\mathbf{q} = k \mathbf{p}\) and so \(\mathbf{a} \cdot k \mathbf{p} + a |k|p = a^2\) if \(k > 0\) we will find \(k = 1\) the position vector we already know about, therefore suppose \(k < 0\) so: \begin{align*} && \mathbf{a} \cdot k \mathbf{p} - ka p &= a^2 \\ \Rightarrow && k(a^2-ap)-kap &= a^2 \\ \Rightarrow && k(a^2-2ap) &= a^2 \\ \Rightarrow && k &= \frac{a^2}{a^2-2ap} \end{align*} Therefore \(\mathbf{q} = \frac{a^2}{a^2-2ap} \mathbf{p}\) The line through \(O\) orthogonal to \(\mathbf{p}\) and \(\mathbf{a}\) will be parallel to \(\mathbf{a} \times \mathbf{p}\). Therefore we should consider points of the from \(s \mathbf{a} \times \mathbf{p}\) on the surface \(S\). \begin{align*} && s\mathbf{a} \cdot ( \mathbf{a} \times \mathbf{p}) + sa^2p |\sin \theta| &= a^2 \end{align*} The angle between \(\cos \theta = \frac{\mathbf{a} \cdot \mathbf{p}}{ap} = \frac{a^2-ap}{ap} \Rightarrow |\sin \theta| = \sqrt{1-\frac{(a-p)^2}{p^2}} = \frac{1}{p} \sqrt{2ap-a^2}\) Therefore \(sa^2 \sqrt{2ap-a^2} = a^2 \Rightarrow s = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2ap-a^2}}\) and so the points are as required. Noting that \(|\mathbf{p} \times \mathbf{t}| = |\frac{1}{p \sin \theta}\mathbf{p} \times (\mathbf{p} \times \mathbf{a}) | = |\frac{1}{p \sin \theta}p^2a \sin \theta | = pa\) The area of triangle \(PQT\) is : \begin{align*} \frac12 | (\mathbf{p} - \mathbf{t}) \times (\mathbf{q} - \mathbf{t}) | &= \frac12 |\mathbf{p} \times \mathbf{q} - \mathbf{t} \times \mathbf{q} - \mathbf{p} \times \mathbf{t} - \mathbf{t} \times \mathbf{t}| \\ &= \frac12 |\mathbf{t} \times (\mathbf{p} - \mathbf{q})| \\ &= \frac12 \cdot (1 - \frac{a^2}{a^2-2ap})| \mathbf{t} \times \mathbf{p}| \\ &= \frac12 \frac{2ap}{a^2-2ap} \cdot ap \\ &= \frac{ap^2}{a^2-ap} \end{align*}

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Solution:

As the string wraps around, the total length in contact will be \(a \theta\). The end contact point will be at \((a\cos \theta, a\sin \theta)\) and the string will be tangential to that. The tangent (unit) vector will be \(\binom{-\sin \theta}{\cos \theta}\), and so the particle will be at \(\binom{a\cos \theta - (L-a\theta) \sin \theta}{a \sin \theta + (L-a \theta) \cos \theta}\). The velocity will be: \begin{align*} \frac{\d}{\d t} \binom{a\cos \theta - (L-a\theta) \sin \theta}{a \sin \theta + (L-a \theta) \cos \theta} &= \binom{-a \sin \theta \cdot \dot{\theta} -(L-a \theta) \cos \theta \cdot \dot{\theta} + a \sin \theta \cdot \dot{\theta} }{a \cos \theta \cdot \dot{\theta} + (L-a \theta) \sin \theta \cdot \dot{\theta} - a \cos \theta \cdot \dot{\theta}} \\ &= \binom{-(L-a \theta) \cos \theta \cdot \dot{\theta} }{ (L-a \theta) \sin \theta \cdot \dot{\theta}} \\ \end{align*} Therefore the speed is \((L-a\theta) \dot{\theta}\). By conservation of energy, we must have that speed is constant, ie: \begin{align*} && (L - a \theta)\dot{\theta} &= v \\ \Rightarrow && \int_0^{L/a} (L - a \theta)\d \theta &= \int_0^T v \d t \\ \Rightarrow && vT &= \frac{L^2}{a} - a\frac{L^2}{2a^2} \\ &&&= \frac{L^2}{2a} \\ \Rightarrow && T &= \frac{L^2}{2av} \end{align*} as requried

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Solution: Consider some point once the string is moving, there will be \(x\) above the table and \(l - x\) hanging in the air. For the hanging string we must have \((l-x)mg - T = -(l-x)m\ddot{x}\). For the string on the table we must have that \(T = -xm \ddot{x}\). Eliminating T, we have \((l-x)g = -l \ddot{x}\) Solving the differential equation, we must have \(x = A \cosh \sqrt \frac{g}{l}t+B \sinh\sqrt \frac{g}{l}t+l\), Since \(x(0) = d, \dot{x}(0) = 0 \Rightarrow B = 0, A = (-d)\). Therefore \(x = l-(l-d) \cosh \sqrt \frac{g}{l} t \Rightarrow t =\sqrt \frac{l}{g} \cosh^{-1} \l \frac{l-x}{l-d} \r\) and we go over the edge when \(x = 0\), ie \(\sqrt \frac{l}{g} \cosh^{-1} \l \frac{l}{l-d} \r\)

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Solution:

The force acting vertically on each of the outer books must be (by symmetry) \(\frac{nW}{2}\). The force acting horizontally on the outer books (and between each book in the horizontal direction) will be the same (we might as well say \(Q\) since increasing this force doesn't make any task less achievable. Looking at an end book, it will have force \(\frac{nW}{2}\) acting on one side, but it this force needs to not slip, ie \(\frac{nW}{2} \leq \mu Q\) \begin{align*} && \frac{nW}{2} &\leq \mu Q \\ \Rightarrow && n &\leq \frac{2\mu Q}{W} \\ && \frac{nW}{2} & \leq P \\ && n & \leq \frac{2P}{W} \\ \Rightarrow && n &\leq \frac2{W}\min \left (P, \mu Q \right) \end{align*}

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Solution:

The accelerations of \(M\) and \(m\) are \(l \sin \alpha \omega^2\) and \(-l \sin \alpha \omega^2\) so the forces \(R_M\) and \(R_m\) are \(M\binom{l \sin \alpha \omega^2}{g}, \,m \binom{-l \sin \alpha \omega^2}{g}\). Since the axle is rotating freely, the moment about \(O\) for the rod must be \(O\). The moment for \(M\) will be \(M\binom{l \sin \alpha\omega^2}{g} \cdot \binom{-l\cos \alpha}{l \sin \alpha} = lM\sin\alpha (g - l \cos \alpha\omega^2)\). The moment for \(m\) will be \(m \binom{-l \sin \alpha\omega^2}{g} \cdot \binom{-l\cos \alpha\omega^2}{l \sin \alpha} = lm \sin \alpha(g+l \cos \alpha\omega^2)\) Therefore \begin{align*} && lM\sin\alpha (g - l \cos \alpha\omega^2) &= lm \sin \alpha(g+l \cos \alpha\omega^2) \\ && M(g - l \cos \alpha \omega^2) &= m(g + l \cos \alpha \omega^2 ) \\ \Rightarrow && g(M-m) &= l \cos \alpha (M+m) \omega^2 \\ \Rightarrow && \omega^2 &= \left (\frac{M-m}{M+m} \right) \frac{g}{l \cos \alpha} \end{align*} as required. The total force on the rod is \(\mathbf{0}\) so the reaction force must be \(M\binom{l \sin \alpha \omega^2}{g}+ \,m \binom{-l \sin \alpha \omega^2}{g} = \binom{l \sin \alpha \omega^2 (M-m)}{(M+m)g}\) Therefore the angle this makes with downward vertical is: \begin{align*} \theta &= \tan^{-1} \left ( \frac{l \sin \alpha \omega^2 (M-m)}{(M+m)g} \right) \\ &= \tan^{-1} \left ( \frac{l \sin \alpha (M-m)}{(M+m)g} \omega^2\right) \\ &= \tan^{-1} \left ( \frac{l \sin \alpha (M-m)}{(M+m)g} \left (\frac{M-m}{M+m} \right) \frac{g}{l \cos \alpha}\right) \\ &= \tan^{-1}\left[\left(\frac{M-m}{M+m}\right)^{2}\tan\alpha\right] \end{align*} as required.