233 problems found
Solution:
In this question, you may assume that, if a continuous function takes both positive and negative values in an interval, then it takes the value \(0\) at some point in that interval.
Solution:
Note: In this question you may use without proof the result \( \dfrac{\d \ }{\d x}\big(\!\arctan x \big) = \dfrac 1 {1+x^2}\,\). Let \[ I_n = \int_0^1 x^n \arctan x \, \d x \;, \] where \(n=0\), 1, 2, 3, \(\ldots\) .
Solution:
The Schwarz inequality is \[ \left( \int_a^b \f(x)\, \g(x)\,\d x\right)^{\!\!2} \le \left( \int_a^b \big( \f(x)\big)^2 \d x \right) \left( \int_a^b \big( \g(x)\big)^2 \d x \right) . \tag{\(*\)} \]
Solution:
A car of mass \(m\) makes a journey of distance \(2d\) in a straight line. It experiences air resistance and rolling resistance so that the total resistance to motion when it is moving with speed \(v\) is \(Av^2 +R\), where \(A\) and \(R\) are constants. The car starts from rest and moves with constant acceleration \(a\) for a distance \(d\). Show that the work done by the engine for this half of the journey is \[ \int_0^d (ma+R+Av^2) \, \d x \] and that it can be written in the form \[ \int_0^w \frac {(ma+R+Av^2)v}a\; \d v \,, \] where \(w =\sqrt {2ad\,}\,\). For the second half of the journey, the acceleration of the car is \(-a\).
Solution: The force delivered by the engine must be \(ma + R + Av^2\), (so the net force is \(ma\)). Therefore the work done is \(\displaystyle \int_0^d F \d x = \int_0^d (ma + R + Av^2) \d x\) Notice that \(a = v \frac{\d v}{\d x} \Rightarrow \frac{a}{v} = \frac{\d v}{\d x}\) and so \begin{align*} && WD &= \int_0^d (ma + R + Av^2) \d x \\ &&&= \int_{x=0}^{x=d} (ma + R + Av^2) \frac{v}{a} \frac{\d v}{\d x} \d x \\ &&&= \int_{x=0}^{x=d} \frac{ (ma + R + Av^2)v}{a} \d v \\ \end{align*} Also notice that if we move with constant acceleration from rest for a distance \(d\) the final speed is \(v^2 = 2ad \Rightarrow v = \sqrt{2ad}\)
For any function \(\f\) satisfying \(\f(x) > 0\), we define the geometric mean, F, by \[ F(y) = e^{\frac{1}{y} \int_{0}^{y} \ln f(x) \, dx} \quad (y > 0). \]
Solution:
In this question, you are not permitted to use any properties of trigonometric functions or inverse trigonometric functions. The function \(\T\) is defined for \(x>0\) by \[ \T(x) = \int_0^x \! \frac 1 {1+u^2} \, \d u\,, \] and $\displaystyle T_\infty = \int_0^\infty \!\! \frac 1 {1+u^2} \, \d u\,$ (which has a finite value).
Solution:
Differentiate, with respect to \(x\), \[ (ax^2+bx+c)\,\ln \big( x+\sqrt{1+x^2}\big) +\big(dx+e\big)\sqrt{1+x^2} \,, \] where \(a\), \(b\), \(c\), \(d\) and \(e\) are constants. You should simplify your answer as far as possible. Hence integrate:
Solution: \begin{align*} && y &= (ax^2+bx+c)\,\ln \big( x+\sqrt{1+x^2}\big) +\big(dx+e\big)\sqrt{1+x^2} \\ && y' &= (2ax+b)\,\ln \big( x+\sqrt{1+x^2}\big) + (ax^2+bx+c) \frac{1}{x + \sqrt{1+x^2}} \cdot \left(1 + \frac{x}{\sqrt{1+x^2}} \right) + d\sqrt{1+x^2} + \frac{x(dx+e)}{\sqrt{1+x^2}} \\ &&&= (2ax+b)\,\ln \big( x+\sqrt{1+x^2}\big) + \frac{1}{\sqrt{1+x^2}} \left ( (ax^2+bx+c) + d(1+x^2) + x(dx+e) \right) \\ &&&= (2ax+b)\,\ln \big( x+\sqrt{1+x^2}\big) + \frac{1}{\sqrt{1+x^2}} \left ( (a+2d)x^2+(b+e)x+(d+c) \right) \\ \end{align*}
Show that \[ \int_0^a \f(x) \d x= \int _0^a \f(a-x) \d x\,, \tag{\(*\)} \] where f is any function for which the integrals exist.
Solution: \begin{align*} u = a-x, \d u = - \d x: && \int_0^a f(x) \d x &= \int_{u=a}^{u=0} f(a-u) (-1) \d u \\ &&&= \int_0^a f(a-u) \d u \\ &&&= \int_0^a f(a-x) \d x \end{align*}
Evaluate the integral \[ \hphantom{ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ (m> \tfrac12)\,.} \int_{m-\frac12} ^\infty \frac 1{x^2}\, \d x { \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ (m > \tfrac12)\,.} \] Show by means of a sketch that \[ \sum_{r=m}^n \frac 1 {r^2} \approx \int_{m-\frac12}^{n+\frac12} \frac1 {x^2} \, \d x \,, \tag{\(*\)} \] where \(m\) and \(n\) are positive integers with \(m < n\).
Solution: \begin{align*} && \int_{m-\frac12}^\infty \frac{1}{x^2} \d x &= \lim_{K \to \infty} \left [ -x^{-1} \right]_{m-\frac12}^K \\ &&&= \frac{1}{m-\frac12} - \lim_{K \to \infty }\frac{1}K \\ &&&= \frac{1}{m-\frac12} \end{align*}
Let \[ \displaystyle I_n= \int_{-\infty}^\infty \frac 1 {(x^2+2ax+b)^n} \, \d x \] where \(a\) and \(b\) are constants with \(b > a^2\), and \(n\) is a positive integer.
Solution:
Solution:
A car of mass \(m\) travels along a straight horizontal road with its engine working at a constant rate \(P\). The resistance to its motion is such that the acceleration of the car is zero when it is moving with speed \(4U\).
Solution:
Given a random variable \(X\) with mean \(\mu\) and standard deviation \(\sigma\), we define the kurtosis, \(\kappa\), of \(X\) by \[ \kappa = \frac{ \E\big((X-\mu)^4\big)}{\sigma^4} -3 \,. \] Show that the random variable \(X-a\), where \(a\) is a constant, has the same kurtosis as \(X\).
Solution: \begin{align*} &&\kappa_{X-a} &= \frac{\mathbb{E}\left(\left(X-a-(\mu-a)\right)^4\right)}{\sigma_{X-a}^4}-3 \\ &&&= \frac{\mathbb{E}\left(\left(X-\mu\right)^4\right)}{\sigma_X^4}-3\\ &&&= \kappa_X \end{align*}
The midpoint of a rod of length \(2b\) slides on the curve \(y =\frac14 x^2\), \(x\ge0\), in such a way that the rod is always tangent, at its midpoint, to the curve. Show that the curve traced out by one end of the rod can be written in the form \begin{align*} x& = 2 \tan\theta - b \cos\theta \\ y& = \tan^2\theta - b \sin\theta \end{align*} for some suitably chosen angle \(\theta\) which satisfies \(0\le \theta < \frac12\pi\,\). When one end of the rod is at a point \(A\) on the \(y\)-axis, the midpoint is at point \(P\) and \(\theta = \alpha\). Let \(R\) be the region bounded by the following:
Solution: At the point \((2t, t^2)\) the gradient is \(t\). Suppose \(\tan \theta = t\), then the point \(b\) away in each direction is \(\binom{2t}{t^2} \pm b \binom{\cos \theta}{\sin \theta}\), ie one end can be written in the form \((x,y) = (2\tan \theta - b \cos \theta, \tan^2 \theta - b \sin \theta)\). Notice we must have \(2\tan \alpha- b \cos \alpha= 0 \Rightarrow b = 2 \frac{\sin \alpha}{\cos ^2 \alpha}\), therefore the coordinates are \((2 \tan \alpha - 2 \tan \alpha, \tan^2 \alpha - 2\tan^2 \alpha) = (0, -\tan^2 \alpha)\) and \((4 \tan \alpha, 3\tan^2 \alpha)\)