112 problems found
Show that, if \(k\) is a root of the quartic equation \[ x^4 + ax^3 + bx^2 + ax + 1 = 0\,, \tag{\(*\)} \] then \(k^{-1}\) is a root. You are now given that \(a\) and \(b\) in \((*)\) are both real and are such that the roots are all real.
Solution: Let \(f(x) = x^4 + ax^3 + bx^2 + ax + 1\), and suppose \(f(k) = 0\). Since \(f(0) = 1\), \(k \neq 0\), therefore we can talk about \(k^{-1}\). \begin{align*} && f(k^{-1}) &= k^{-4} + ak^{-3} + bk^{-2} + ak^{-1} + 1 \\ &&&= k^{-4}(1 + ak + bk^2 + ak^3 + k^4) \\ &&&= k^{-4}(k^4+ak^3+bk^2+ak+1) \\ &&&= k^{-4}f(k) = 0 \end{align*} Therefore \(k^{-1}\) is also a root of \(f\)
In this question, you should ignore issues of convergence.
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In this question, you should ignore issues of convergence.
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In this question, you are not permitted to use any properties of trigonometric functions or inverse trigonometric functions. The function \(\T\) is defined for \(x>0\) by \[ \T(x) = \int_0^x \! \frac 1 {1+u^2} \, \d u\,, \] and $\displaystyle T_\infty = \int_0^\infty \!\! \frac 1 {1+u^2} \, \d u\,$ (which has a finite value).
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Use the factor theorem to show that \(a+b-c\) is a factor of \[ (a+b+c)^3 -6(a+b+c)(a^2+b^2+c^2) +8(a^3+b^3+c^3) \,. \tag{\(*\)} \] Hence factorise (\(*\)) completely.
Solution: Suppose \(c = a+b\) then \begin{align*} (a+b+c)^3 &-6(a+b+c)(a^2+b^2+c^2) +8(a^3+b^3+c^3) \\ &= (2(a+b))^3-6(2(a+b))(a^2+b^2+(a+b)^2) + 8(a^3+b^3+(a+b)^3) \\ &=16(a+b)^3 - 24(a+b)(a^2+b^2+ab)+8(a^3+b^3) \\ &= 8(a+b)(2(a+b)^2-3(a^2+b^2+ab)+(a^2-ab+b^2)) \\ &= 0 \end{align*} Therefore \(a+b-c\) is a factor. By symmetry \(a-b+c\) and \(-a+b+c\) are also factors. Since our polynomial is degree \(3\) it must be \(K(a+b-c)(b+c-a)(c+a-b)\) for some \(K\). Since the coefficient of \(a^3\) is \(3\), \(K = 3\). so we have: \(3(a+b-c)(b+c-a)(c+a-b)\)
This question concerns solutions of the differential equation \[ (1-x^2) \left(\frac{\d y}{\d x}\right)^2 + k^2 y^2 = k^2\, \tag{\(*\)} \] where \(k\) is a positive integer. For each value of \(k\), let \(y_k(x)\) be the solution of \((*)\) that satisfies \(y_k(1)=1\); you may assume that there is only one such solution for each value of \(k\).
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Show that \[ \int_0^a \f(x) \d x= \int _0^a \f(a-x) \d x\,, \tag{\(*\)} \] where f is any function for which the integrals exist.
Solution: \begin{align*} u = a-x, \d u = - \d x: && \int_0^a f(x) \d x &= \int_{u=a}^{u=0} f(a-u) (-1) \d u \\ &&&= \int_0^a f(a-u) \d u \\ &&&= \int_0^a f(a-x) \d x \end{align*}
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Solution: \begin{align*} I_n - I_{n+1} &= \int_0^\infty \frac 1 {(1+u^2)^n}\, \d u - \int_0^\infty \frac 1 {(1+u^2)^{n+1}}\, \d u \\ &= \int_0^\infty \l \frac 1 {(1+u^2)^n}- \frac 1 {(1+u^2)^{n+1}} \r\, \d u \\ &= \int_0^\infty \frac {u^2} {(1+u^2)^{n+1}} \, \d u \\ &= \left [ u \frac{u}{(1+u^2)^{n+1}} \right]_0^{\infty} - \frac{-1}{2n}\int_0^{\infty} \frac{1}{(1+u^2)^n} \d u \tag{\(IBP: u = u, v' = \frac{u}{(1+u^2)^{n+1}}\)}\\ &= \frac{1}{2n} I_n \end{align*} \(\displaystyle I_1 = \int_0^{\infty} \frac{1}{1+u^2} \d u = \left [ \tan^{-1} u \right]_0^\infty = \frac{\pi}{2}\) as expected. We also have, \(I_{n+1} = \frac{2n(2n-1)}{2n \cdot 2n} I_n \), by rearranging the recurrence relation. Therefore, when we multiply out the top we will have \(2n!\) and the bottom we will have two factors of \(n!\) and two factors of \(2^n\) combined with the original \(\frac{\pi}{2}\) we get \[ I_{n+1} = \frac{(2n)! \pi}{2^{2n+1} (n!)^2} \] \begin{align*} J = \int_0^\infty f\big( (x- x^{-1})^2\big ) \, \d x &= \int_{u = \infty}^{u = 0} f((u^{-1}-u)^2)(-u^{-2} )\d u \tag{\(u = x^{-1}, \d u = -x^{-2} \d x\)} \\ &= \int^{u = \infty}_{u = 0} f((u^{-1}-u)^2)u^{-2} \d u \\ &= \int^{\infty}_{0} u^{-2}f((u-u^{-1})^2) \d u \\ \end{align*} Therefore adding the two forms for \(J\) we have \begin{align*} 2 J &= \int_0^\infty f\big( (x- x^{-1})^2\big ) \, \d x + \int_0^\infty x^{-2} f\big( (x- x^{-1})^2\big ) \, \d x \\ &= \int_0^\infty (1+x^{-2}) f\big( (x- x^{-1})^2\big ) \, \d x \end{align*} And letting \(u = x - x^{-1}\), we have \(\d u = (1 + x^{-2}) \d x\), and \(u\) runs from \(-\infty\) to \(\infty\) so we have: \begin{align*} \int_0^\infty (1+x^{-2}) f\big( (x- x^{-1})^2\big ) \, \d x &= \int_{-\infty}^\infty f(u^2) \, \d u \\ &=2 \int_{0}^\infty f(u^2) \, \d u \end{align*} Since both of these are \(2J\) we have the result we are after. Finally, \begin{align*} \int_0^\infty \frac {x^{2n-2}}{(x^4-x^2+1)^n} \, \d x &= \int_0^{\infty} \frac{x^{2n-2}}{x^{2n}(x^2-1+x^{-2})^n} \d x \\ &= \int_0^{\infty} \frac{x^{-2}}{((x-x^{-1})^2+1)^n} \d x \\ &= \int_0^{\infty} \frac{1}{(x^2+1)^n} \d x \tag{Where \(f(x) = (1+x^2)^{-n}\) in \(J\) integral} \\ &= I_n = \frac{(2n-2)! \pi}{2^{2n-1} ((n-1)!)^2} \end{align*}
The numbers \(a\) and \(b\), where \(b > a\ge0\), are such that \[ \int_a^b x^2 \d x = \left ( \int_a^b x \d x\right)^{\!\!2}\,. \]
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