11 problems found
In this question, the following theorem may be used without proof. Let \(u_1, u_2, \ldots\) be a sequence of real numbers. If the sequence is
Solution:
Show that for positive integer \(n\), \(x^n - y^n = (x-y)\displaystyle\sum_{r=1}^{n} x^{n-r} y^{r-1}\).
Let \[ \displaystyle I_n= \int_{-\infty}^\infty \frac 1 {(x^2+2ax+b)^n} \, \d x \] where \(a\) and \(b\) are constants with \(b > a^2\), and \(n\) is a positive integer.
Solution:
Solution: \begin{align*} I_n - I_{n+1} &= \int_0^\infty \frac 1 {(1+u^2)^n}\, \d u - \int_0^\infty \frac 1 {(1+u^2)^{n+1}}\, \d u \\ &= \int_0^\infty \l \frac 1 {(1+u^2)^n}- \frac 1 {(1+u^2)^{n+1}} \r\, \d u \\ &= \int_0^\infty \frac {u^2} {(1+u^2)^{n+1}} \, \d u \\ &= \left [ u \frac{u}{(1+u^2)^{n+1}} \right]_0^{\infty} - \frac{-1}{2n}\int_0^{\infty} \frac{1}{(1+u^2)^n} \d u \tag{\(IBP: u = u, v' = \frac{u}{(1+u^2)^{n+1}}\)}\\ &= \frac{1}{2n} I_n \end{align*} \(\displaystyle I_1 = \int_0^{\infty} \frac{1}{1+u^2} \d u = \left [ \tan^{-1} u \right]_0^\infty = \frac{\pi}{2}\) as expected. We also have, \(I_{n+1} = \frac{2n(2n-1)}{2n \cdot 2n} I_n \), by rearranging the recurrence relation. Therefore, when we multiply out the top we will have \(2n!\) and the bottom we will have two factors of \(n!\) and two factors of \(2^n\) combined with the original \(\frac{\pi}{2}\) we get \[ I_{n+1} = \frac{(2n)! \pi}{2^{2n+1} (n!)^2} \] \begin{align*} J = \int_0^\infty f\big( (x- x^{-1})^2\big ) \, \d x &= \int_{u = \infty}^{u = 0} f((u^{-1}-u)^2)(-u^{-2} )\d u \tag{\(u = x^{-1}, \d u = -x^{-2} \d x\)} \\ &= \int^{u = \infty}_{u = 0} f((u^{-1}-u)^2)u^{-2} \d u \\ &= \int^{\infty}_{0} u^{-2}f((u-u^{-1})^2) \d u \\ \end{align*} Therefore adding the two forms for \(J\) we have \begin{align*} 2 J &= \int_0^\infty f\big( (x- x^{-1})^2\big ) \, \d x + \int_0^\infty x^{-2} f\big( (x- x^{-1})^2\big ) \, \d x \\ &= \int_0^\infty (1+x^{-2}) f\big( (x- x^{-1})^2\big ) \, \d x \end{align*} And letting \(u = x - x^{-1}\), we have \(\d u = (1 + x^{-2}) \d x\), and \(u\) runs from \(-\infty\) to \(\infty\) so we have: \begin{align*} \int_0^\infty (1+x^{-2}) f\big( (x- x^{-1})^2\big ) \, \d x &= \int_{-\infty}^\infty f(u^2) \, \d u \\ &=2 \int_{0}^\infty f(u^2) \, \d u \end{align*} Since both of these are \(2J\) we have the result we are after. Finally, \begin{align*} \int_0^\infty \frac {x^{2n-2}}{(x^4-x^2+1)^n} \, \d x &= \int_0^{\infty} \frac{x^{2n-2}}{x^{2n}(x^2-1+x^{-2})^n} \d x \\ &= \int_0^{\infty} \frac{x^{-2}}{((x-x^{-1})^2+1)^n} \d x \\ &= \int_0^{\infty} \frac{1}{(x^2+1)^n} \d x \tag{Where \(f(x) = (1+x^2)^{-n}\) in \(J\) integral} \\ &= I_n = \frac{(2n-2)! \pi}{2^{2n-1} ((n-1)!)^2} \end{align*}
For any given (suitable) function \(\f\), the Laplace transform of \(\f\) is the function \(\F\) defined by \[ \F(s) = \int_0^\infty \e^{-st}\f(t)\d t \quad \quad \, (s>0) \,. \]
Solution:
Show that \[ \int_0^a \frac{\sinh x}{2\cosh^2 x -1} \, \mathrm{d} x = \frac{1}{2 \sqrt{2}} \ln \l \frac{\sqrt{2}\cosh a -1}{\sqrt{2}\cosh a +1}\r + \frac{1}{2 \sqrt{2}} \ln \l \frac{\sqrt{2}+1}{\sqrt{2}-1}\r \] and find \[ \int_0^a \frac{\cosh x}{1+2\sinh^2 x} \, \mathrm{d} x \, . \] Hence show that \[ \int_0^\infty \frac{\cosh x - \sinh x}{1+2\sinh^2 x} \, \mathrm{d} x = \frac{\pi}{2\sqrt{2}} - \frac{1}{2 \sqrt{2}} \ln \l \frac{\sqrt{2}+1}{\sqrt{2}-1}\r \, . \] By substituting \(u = \e^x\) in this result, or otherwise, find \[ \int_1^\infty \frac{1}{1+u^4} \, \mathrm{d} u \, . \]
Show that, if \(n>0\,\), then $$ \int_{e^{1/n}}^\infty\,{{\ln x} \over {x^{n+1}}}\,\d x = {2 \over {n^2\e}}\;. $$ You may assume that \(\ds \frac{\ln x} x \to 0\;\) as \(x\to\infty\,\). Explain why, if \(1 < a < b\,\), then $$ \int_b^\infty\,{{\ln x} \over {x^{n+1}}}\,\d x < \int_a^\infty\,{{\ln x} \over {x^{n+1}}}\,\d x\;. $$ Deduce that $$ \sum_{n=1}^{N}{1 \over n^2} < {\e \over 2}\int_{\e^{1/N}}^{\infty} \left({1-x^{-N}} \over {x^2-x}\right) \ln x\,\d x\;, $$ where \(N\,\) is any integer greater than \(1\).
Find the area of the region between the curve \(\displaystyle y = {\ln x \over x}\,\) and the \(x\)-axis, for \(1 \le x \le a\). What happens to this area as \(a\) tends to infinity? Find the volume of the solid obtained when the region between the curve \(\displaystyle y = {\ln x \over x}\,\) and the \(x\)-axis, for \(1 \le x\le a\), is rotated through \(2 \pi\) radians about the \(x\)-axis. What happens to this volume as \(a\) tends to infinity?
Solution: \begin{align*} && \int_1^a \frac{\ln x}{x} \d x &= \left [ \ln x \cdot \ln x\right ]_1^a - \int_1^a \frac{\ln x}{x} \d x \\ \Rightarrow && \int_1^a \frac{\ln x}{x} \d x &= \frac12 \left ( \ln a \right) ^2 \\ && \int_1^\infty \frac{\ln x}{x} \d x &= \lim_{a \to \infty} \frac12 (\ln a)^2 \\ &&&= \infty \end{align*} \begin{align*} && \pi \int_1^a \left ( \frac{\ln x}{x} \right)^2 \d x &= \pi \int_{u=0}^{u=\ln a} \left ( \frac{u}{e^u} \right)^2 e^u \d u \\ &&&= \pi \int_0^{\ln a} u^2 e^{-u} \d u \\ &&&= \pi \left [-u^2e^{-u} \right]_0^{\ln a} +\pi \int_0^{\ln a} 2u e^{-u} \d u \\ &&&= -\frac{\pi}{a} (\ln a)^2 + \pi \left [-2u e^{-u} \right]_0^{\ln a} + \pi \int_0^{\ln a} e^{-u} \d u \\ &&&= -\frac{\pi}{a} (\ln a)^2- \frac{2 \pi}{a}\ln a+\pi \left (1 - \frac{1}{a} \right) \\ \\ && \pi \int_1^{\infty} \left ( \frac{\ln x}{x} \right)^2 \d x &= \lim_{a \to \infty} \left ( -\frac{\pi}{a} (\ln a)^2- \frac{2 \pi}{a}\ln a+\pi \left (1 - \frac{1}{a} \right) \right) \\ &&&= \pi \end{align*}
Criticise each step of the following arguments. You should correct the arguments where necessary and possible, and say (with justification) whether you think the conclusion are true even though the argument is incorrect.
Solution:
Sketch the graph of \[ y=\frac{x^{2}\mathrm{e}^{-x}}{1+x}, \] for \(-\infty< x< \infty.\) Show that the value of \[ \int_{0}^{\infty}\frac{x^{2}\mathrm{e}^{-x}}{1+x}\,\mathrm{d}x \] lies between \(0\) and \(1\).
Solution: