11 problems found
Solution:
The set \(S\) consists of all the positive integers that leave a remainder of 1 upon division by 4. The set \(T\) consists of all the positive integers that leave a remainder of 3 upon division by 4.
Solution:
If \(s_1\), \(s_2\), \(s_3\), \(\ldots\) and \(t_1\), \(t_2\), \(t_3\), \(\ldots\) are sequences of positive numbers, we write \[ (s_n)\le (t_n) \] to mean
Solution:
Solution:
This question concerns the inequality \begin{equation} \int_0^\pi \bigl( f(x) \bigr)^2 \d x \le \int_0^\pi \bigl( f'(x)\bigr)^2 \d x\,.\tag{\(*\)} \end{equation}
Solution:
What does it mean to say that a number \(x\) is irrational? Prove by contradiction statements A and B below, where \(p\) and \(q\) are real numbers.
Solution:
For any positive integer \(N\), the function \(\f(N)\) is defined by \[ \f(N) = N\Big(1-\frac1{p_1}\Big)\Big(1-\frac1{p_2}\Big) \cdots\Big(1-\frac1{p_k}\Big) \] where \(p_1\), \(p_2\), \(\dots\) , \(p_k\) are the only prime numbers that are factors of \(N\). Thus \(\f(80)=80(1-\frac12)(1-\frac15)\,\).
Solution:
The random variable \(X\) takes only the values \(x_1\) and \(x_2\) (where \( x_1 \not= x_2 \)), and the random variable \(Y\) takes only the values \(y_1\) and \(y_2\) (where \(y_1 \not= y_2\)). Their joint distribution is given by $$ \P ( X = x_1 , Y = y_1 ) = a \ ; \ \ \P ( X = x_1 , Y = y_2 ) = q - a \ ; \ \ \P ( X = x_2 , Y = y_1 ) = p - a \ . $$ Show that if \(\E(X Y) = \E(X)\E(Y)\) then $$ (a - p q ) ( x_1 - x_2 ) ( y_1 - y_2 ) = 0 . $$ Hence show that two random variables each taking only two distinct values are independent if \(\E(X Y) = \E(X) \E(Y)\). Give a joint distribution for two random variables \(A\) and \(B\), each taking the three values \(- 1\), \(0\) and \(1\) with probability \({1 \over 3}\), which have \(\E(A B) = \E( A)\E (B)\), but which are not independent.
Solution: \begin{align*} \mathbb{P}(X = x_1) &= a + q - a = q \\ \mathbb{P}(X = x_2) &= 1 - q \\ \mathbb{P}(Y = y_1) & = a + p - a = p \\ \mathbb{P}(Y = y_2) & = 1 - p \end{align*} \begin{align*} \mathbb{E}(X)\mathbb{E}(Y) &= \l qx_1 + (1-q)x_2 \r \l p y_1 + (1-p)y_2\r \\ &= qpx_1y_1 + q(1-p)x_1y_2 + (1-q)px_2y_1 + (1-q)(1-p)x_2y_2 \\ \mathbb{E}(XY) &= ax_1y_1 + (q-a)x_1y_2 + (p-a)x_2y_1 + (1 + a - p - q)x_2y_2 &= \end{align*} Therefore \(\mathbb{E}(XY) - \mathbb{E}(X)\mathbb{E}(Y)\) is a degree 2 polynomial in the \(x_i, y_i\). If \(x_1 = x_2\) then we have: \begin{align*} \mathbb{E}(X)\mathbb{E}(Y) &=x_1 \l p y_1 + (1-p)y_2\r \\ \mathbb{E}(XY) &= x_1(ay_1 + (q-a)y_2 + (p-a)y_1 + (1 + a - p - q)y_2) \\ &= x_1 (py_1 + (1-p)y_2) \end{align*} Therefore \(x_1 - x_2\) is a root and by symmetry \(y_1 - y_2\) is a root. Therefore it remains to check the coefficient of \(x_1y_1\) which is \(a - pq\) to complete the factorisation. For any two random variables taking two distinct values, we can find \(a, q, p\) satisfying the relations above. We also note that \(X\) and \(Y\) are independent if \(\mathbb{P}(X = x_i, Y = y_i) = \mathbb{P}(X = x_i)\mathbb{P}(Y = y_i)\). Since \(x_1 \neq x_2\) and \(y_1 \neq y_2\) and \(\E(A B) = \E( A)\E (B) \Rightarrow a = pq\). But if \(a = pq\), we have \(\mathbb{P}(X = x_1, Y = y_1) = \mathbb{P}(X = x_1)\mathbb{P}(Y = y_1)\) and all the other relations drop out similarly. Consider \begin{align*} \mathbb{P}(A = -1, B = 1) &= \frac{1}{6} \\ \mathbb{P}(A = -1, B = -1) &= \frac{1}{6} \\ \mathbb{P}(A = 0, B = 0) &= \frac{1}{3} \\ \mathbb{P}(A = 1, B = -1) &= \frac{1}{6} \\ \mathbb{P}(A = -1, B = -1) &= \frac{1}{6} \end{align*}
In this question, \(\mathbf{A,\mathbf{B\) }}and \(\mathbf{X\) are non-zero \(2\times2\) real matrices.} Are the following assertions true or false? You must provide a proof or a counterexample in each case.
Solution:
Two square matrices \(\mathbf{A}\) and \(\mathbf{B}\) satisfies \(\mathbf{AB=0}.\) Show that either \(\det\mathbf{A}=0\) or \(\det\mathbf{B}=0\) or \(\det\mathbf{A}=\det\mathbf{B}=0\). If \(\det\mathbf{B}\neq0\), what must \(\mathbf{A}\) be? Give an example to show that the condition \(\det\mathbf{A}=\det\mathbf{B}=0\) is not sufficient for the equation \(\mathbf{AB=0}\) to hold. Find real numbers \(p,q\) and \(r\) such that \[ \mathbf{M}^{3}+2\mathbf{M}^{2}-5\mathbf{M}-6\mathbf{I}=(\mathbf{M}+p\mathbf{I})(\mathbf{M}+q\mathbf{I})(\mathbf{M}+r\mathbf{I}), \] where \(\mathbf{M}\) is any square matrix and \(\mathbf{I}\) is the appropriate identity matrix. Hence, or otherwise, find all matrices \(\mathbf{M}\) of the form $\begin{pmatrix}a & c\\ 0 & b \end{pmatrix}$ which satisfy the equation \[ \mathbf{M}^{3}+2\mathbf{M}^{2}-5\mathbf{M}-6\mathbf{I}=\mathbf{0}. \]
Solution: Since \(0 = \det \mathbf{0} = \det \mathbf{AB} = \det \mathbf{A} \det\mathbf{B}\) at least one of \(\det \mathbf{A}\) or \(\det \mathbf{B}\) is zero. If \(\det \mathbf{B} \neq 0\) then \(\mathbf{B}\) is invertible, and multiplying on the right by \(\mathbf{B}^{-1}\) gives us \(\mathbf{A} = \mathbf{0}\). If \(\mathbf{A} = \begin{pmatrix} 1 & 1 \\ 0 & 0 \end{pmatrix}\) and \(\mathbf{B} = \begin{pmatrix} 1 & 0 \\1 & 0 \end{pmatrix}\), then \(\det \mathbf{A} = \det \mathbf{B} = 0\), but \(\mathbf{AB} = \begin{pmatrix} 1 & 0 \\ 0 & 0 \end{pmatrix} \neq \mathbf{0}\) Since \(\mathbf{M}\) commutes with itself and the identity matrix, this is equivalent to factorising the polynomial over the reals. Therefore $$\mathbf{M}^{3}+2\mathbf{M}^{2}-5\mathbf{M}-6\mathbf{I}=(\mathbf{M}-2\mathbf{I})(\mathbf{M}+\mathbf{I})(\mathbf{M}+3\mathbf{I}),$$ Since we now know at least one of \(\det (\mathbf{M}-2\mathbf{I})\), \(\det (\mathbf{M}+\mathbf{I})\), \(\det (\mathbf{M}+3\mathbf{I})\), we should look at cases: Since at least one of those must be non-zero, we must have the following cases: \((a,b) = (2,-1), (-1,2), (-1,-3), (-3,-1), (2,-3), (-3,2)\) In each of those cases, we will have: \(\begin{pmatrix} 0 & c \\ 0 & b+k \end{pmatrix}\begin{pmatrix} a+l & c \\ 0 & 0 \end{pmatrix} = \begin{pmatrix} 0 & 0 \\ 0 & 0\end{pmatrix}\) and so all of those solutions are valid. So \(c\) can be anything as long as \((a,b)\) are in that set of solutions
Give a careful argument to show that, if \(G_{1}\) and \(G_{2}\) are subgroups of a finite group \(G\) such that every element of \(G\) is either in \(G_{1}\) or in \(G_{2},\) then either \(G_{1}=G\) or \(G_{2}=G\). Give an example of a group \(H\) which has three subgroups \(H_{1},H_{2}\) and \(H_{3}\) such that every element of \(H\) is either in \(H_{1},H_{2}\) or \(H_{3}\) and \(H_{1}\neq H,H_{2}\neq H,H_{3}\neq H\).
Solution: Suppose \(|G_1|, |G_2| < |G|\) for sake of contraction. Then by Lagrange's theorem \(|G_1| \mid |G|\) and \(|G_2| \mid |G|\), so \(|G_1|, |G_2| \leq \frac{|G|}{2}\). But \(|G_1 \cup G_2| = |G_1| + |G_2| - |G_1 \cap G_2|\). \(|G_1 \cup G_2| = |G|\) by assumption, and \(e \in G_1 \cap G_2\), so \(|G_1 \cap G_2| \geq 1\). Therefore \(|G| = |G_1| + |G_2| - |G_1 \cap G_2| \leq \frac{|G|}{2} + \frac{|G|}{2} - 1 = |G| - 1 < |G|\), contradiction! Let \(H = K_4 = \{e, a, b, c\}\) with \(a^2 = b^2 = c^2 = e\). then \(H = \{e, a\} \cup \{e, b\} \cup \{e, c\}\) with all subgroups distinct