Year: 2005
Paper: 3
Question Number: 13
Course: LFM Stats And Pure
Section: Hypergeometric Distribution
No solution available for this problem.
Difficulty Rating: 1700.0
Difficulty Comparisons: 0
Banger Rating: 1487.7
Banger Comparisons: 1
A pack of cards consists of $n+1$ cards,
which are printed with the integers from
$0$ to $n$. A~game consists of drawing cards repeatedly at
random from the pack until the
card printed with 0 is drawn, at which point the game ends.
After each draw, the player
receives $\pounds 1$ if the card drawn shows any of the
integers from $1$ to $w$ inclusive but receives nothing
if the card drawn shows any of the
integers from $w+1$ to $n$ inclusive.
\begin{questionparts}
\item[\bf (i)] In one version of the game, each card drawn is replaced immediately
and randomly in the pack.
Explain clearly why the probability that the player
wins a total of exactly $\pounds 3$
is equal to the probability of the following event
occurring:
out of the first four cards drawn which show
numbers in the range $0$ to $w$,
the numbers on the first three are non-zero and the
number on the fourth is zero.
Hence show that the probability that the player
wins a total of exactly $\pounds 3$ is equal to $\displaystyle \frac{w^3}{(w+1)^4}$.
Write down the probability that the player wins a total of exactly
$\pounds r$ and hence find the expected total win.
\item[\bf (ii)] In another version of the game,
each card drawn is removed from the pack.
Show that the expected total win in this version is
half of the expected total win in the other version.
\end{questionparts}