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1993 Paper 2 Q6
D: 1600.0 B: 1516.0

In this question, \(\mathbf{A,\mathbf{B\) }}and \(\mathbf{X\) are non-zero \(2\times2\) real matrices.} Are the following assertions true or false? You must provide a proof or a counterexample in each case.

  1. If \(\mathbf{AB=0}\) then \(\mathbf{BA=0}.\)
  2. \((\mathbf{A-B)(A+B)=}\mathbf{A}^{2}-\mathbf{B}^{2}.\)
  3. The equation \(\mathbf{AX=0}\) has a non-zero solution \(\mathbf{X}\) if and only if \(\det\mathbf{A}=0.\)
  4. For any \(\mathbf{A}\) and \(\mathbf{B}\) there are at most two matrices \(\mathbf{X}\) such that \(\mathbf{X}^{2}+\mathbf{AX}+\mathbf{B}=\mathbf{0}.\)


Solution:

  1. This is false, for example let \(\mathbf{A} = \begin{pmatrix} 0 & 1 \\ 0 & 1 \end{pmatrix}\) and \(\mathbf{B} = \begin{pmatrix} 0 & 1 \\ 0 & 0 \end{pmatrix}\), then \begin{align*} \mathbf{AB} &= \begin{pmatrix} 0 & 1 \\ 0 & 1 \end{pmatrix}\begin{pmatrix} 0 & 1 \\ 0 & 0 \end{pmatrix} \\ &= \begin{pmatrix}0 & 0 \\ 0 & 0\end{pmatrix} \\ \mathbf{BA} &= \begin{pmatrix} 0 & 1 \\ 0 & 0 \end{pmatrix}\begin{pmatrix} 0 & 1 \\ 0 & 1 \end{pmatrix} \\ &= \begin{pmatrix}0 & 1 \\ 0 & 0\end{pmatrix} \\ \end{align*}
  2. This is also false, using the same matrices from part (i), we find: \begin{align*} (\mathbf{A - B})(\mathbf{A + B}) &= \mathbf{A}^2-\mathbf{BA}+\mathbf{AB}-\mathbf{B}^2 \\ &= \mathbf{A}^2-\mathbf{B}^2+\begin{pmatrix}0 & 1 \\ 0 & 0\end{pmatrix} \\ &\neq \mathbf{A}^2-\mathbf{B}^2 \end{align*}
  3. This is true. Claim: The equation \(\mathbf{AX=0}\) has a non-zero solution \(\mathbf{X}\) if and only if \(\det\mathbf{A}=0.\) Proof: \((\Rightarrow)\) Suppose \(\det\mathbf{A} \neq 0\) then \(\mathbf{A}\) has an inverse, and so we must have \(\mathbf{A}^{-1}\mathbf{AX} = \mathbf{0} \Rightarrow \mathbf{X} = \mathbf{0}\). \((\Leftarrow)\) Suppose \(\det \mathbf{A} = 0\) then \(ad-bc=0\), so consider the matrix \(\mathbf{X} = \begin{pmatrix} d & d\\ -c & -c\end{pmatrix}\) (or if this is zero, \(\mathbf{X} = \begin{pmatrix} a & a\\ -b & -b\end{pmatrix}\))
  4. This is false. Consider \(\mathbf{A} = \mathbf{B} = \mathbf{0}\), then \(\mathbf{X} = \begin{pmatrix} 0 & x \\ 0 & 0\end{pmatrix}\) has the property that \(\mathbf{X}^2 = \mathbf{0}\) for all \(x\), so at least more than 2 values