Problems

Solution: Claim: If \(f\) is a constant, then \(\triangle f = 0\) Proof: First consider \(f(x) = 1, g(x) = x\) then we must have: \begin{align*} && \triangle (1x) &= 1 \triangle x + x \triangle 1 \tag{iv} \\ &&&= 1 \cdot 1 + x \triangle 1 \tag{i} \\ \Rightarrow && 1 &= 1 + x \triangle 1 \tag{i} \\ \Rightarrow && \triangle 1 &= 0 \\ \Rightarrow && \triangle c &= 0 \tag{iii} \end{align*} \begin{align*} && \triangle (x^2) &= x \triangle x + x \triangle x \tag{iv} \\ &&&= x \cdot 1 + x \cdot 1 \tag{i} \\ &&&= 2x \\ \\ && \triangle (x^3) &= x^2 \triangle x + x \triangle (x^2) \tag{iv} \\ &&&= x^2 \cdot 1 + x \cdot 2x \tag{\(\triangle x^2 = 2x\)}\\ &&&= 3x^2 \end{align*} Claim: \(\triangle h(x) = \frac{\d h(x)}{\d x}\) for any polynomial \(h\) Proof: Since both \(\triangle\) and \(\frac{\d}{\d x}\) are linear (properties \((ii)\) and \((iii)\)) it suffices to prove that: \(\triangle x^n = nx^{n-1}\). For this we proceed by induction. Base cases (we've proved up to \(n = 3\) so we're good). Suppose it's true for some \(n\), then consider \(n + 1\), \begin{align*} && \triangle (x^{n+1}) &= x \triangle (x^n) + x^n \triangle x \tag{iv} \\ &&&= x \cdot n x^{n-1} + x^n \triangle x \tag{Ind. hyp.} \\ &&&= nx^n + x^n \tag{i} \\ &&&= (n+1)x^{n} \end{align*} Therefore it's true for for \(n+1\). Therefore by induction it's true for all \(n\).

Solution: Claim: If \(f(x) = c\) then \(\lozenge f(x) = 0\) Proof: Consider \(g(x) = x\) then \begin{align*} (1) && \lozenge(f(x)g(x)) &= g(x) \lozenge f(x) + f(x) \lozenge g(x) \\ \Rightarrow && \lozenge(c x) &= x \lozenge f(x) + c \lozenge x \\ (4) && \lozenge(c x) &= c \lozenge x \\ \Rightarrow && 0 &= x \lozenge f(x) \\ \Rightarrow && \lozenge f(x) &= 0 \end{align*} \begin{align*} (1) && \lozenge(x^2) &= x \lozenge x + x \lozenge x \\ (3) &&&= 2 x \cdot 1 \\ &&&= 2x \\ \\ (1) && \lozenge (x^3) &= x^2 \lozenge x + x \lozenge (x^2) \\ &&&= x^2 \cdot \underbrace{1}_{(3)} + x \cdot\underbrace{ 2x}_{\text{previous part}} \\ &&&= 3x^2 \end{align*} Claim: \(\lozenge h(x) = \frac{\d }{\d x} ( h(x))\) for any polynomial \(h\). Proof: (By (strong) induction on the degree of \(h\)). Base case: True, we proved this in the first part of the question. Inductive step: Assume true for all polynomials of degree less than or equal to \(k\). Then consider \(n = k+1\). We can write \(h(x) = ax^{k+1} + h_k(x)\) where \(h_k(x)\) is a polynomial of degree less than or equal to \(k\). Then notice: \begin{align*} && \lozenge (h(x)) &= \lozenge (ax^{k+1} + h_k(x)) \\ (2) &&&= \lozenge (ax^{k+1})+ \lozenge (h_k(x)) \\ &&&=\underbrace{a\lozenge (x^{k+1})}_{(4)}+ \underbrace{\frac{\d}{\d x} (h_k(x))}_{\text{inductive hypothesis}}\\ &&&= a \underbrace{\left (x \lozenge x^k + x^k \lozenge x \right)}_{(1)} + \frac{\d}{\d x} (h_k(x)) \\ &&&= a \left ( x \cdot \underbrace{k x^{k-1}}_{\text{inductive hyp.}} + x^k \cdot \underbrace{1}_{(3)} \right) + \frac{\d}{\d x} (h_k(x)) \\ &&&= (k+1)a x^k + \frac{\d}{\d x} (h_k(x)) \\ &&&= \frac{\d }{\d x} \left ( ax^{k+1} + h_k(x) \right) \\ &&&= \frac{\d }{\d x} (h(x)) \end{align*} Therefore since our statement is true for \(n=0\) and if it is true for \(n=k\) it is true for \(n=k+1\) by the principle of mathematical induction it is true for all \(n \geq 0\)