1 problem found
Prove that, for any integers \(n\) and \(r\), with \(1\leqslant r\leqslant n,\) \[ \binom{n}{r}+\binom{n}{r-1}=\binom{n+1}{r}. \] Hence or otherwise, prove that \[ (uv)^{(n)}=u^{(n)}v+\binom{n}{1}u^{(n-1)}v^{(1)}+\binom{n}{2}u^{(n-2)}v^{(2)}+\cdots+uv^{(n)}, \] where \(u\) and \(v\) are functions of \(x\) and \(z^{(r)}\) means \(\dfrac{\mathrm{d}^{r}z}{\mathrm{d}x^{r}}\). Prove that, if \(y=\sin^{-1}x,\) then \((1-x^{2})y^{(n+2)}-(2n+1)xy^{(n+1)}-n^{2}y^{(n)}=0.\)
Solution: \begin{align*} \binom{n}{r} + \binom{n}{r-1} &= \frac{n!}{r!(n-r)!} + \frac{n!}{(r-1)!(n-r+1)!} \\ &= \frac{n!}{(r-1)!(n-r)!} \left ( \frac{1}{r} + \frac{1}{n-r+1} \right) \\ &= \frac{n!}{(r-1)!(n-r)!} \frac{(n-r+1)+r}{r(n-r+1)} \\ &= \frac{n! (n+1)}{r! (n-r+1)!} \\ &= \frac{(n+1)!}{r!(n+1-r)!} \\ &= \binom{n+1}{r} \end{align*} Claim: \(\displaystyle (uv)^{(n)} = \sum_{r=0}^n \binom{n}{r} u^{(n-r)} v^{(r)}\) Proof: (By induction on \(n\)). Base case: \(n = 0\) is clear. Inductive step: Suppose it is true for \(n = k\), then consider \begin{align*} (uv)^{(k+1)} &= \left ( (uv)^{(k)} \right)' \\ &= \left ( \sum_{r=0}^k \binom{k}{r} u^{(k-r)} v^{(r)} \right)' \tag{by assumption} \\ &=\sum_{r=0}^k \binom{k}{r} \left ( u^{(k-r)} v^{(r)}\right)' \tag{linearity} \\ &=\sum_{r=0}^k \binom{k}{r} \left ( u^{(k-r+1)} v^{(r)} + u^{(k-r)}v^{(r+1)}\right) \\ &= \sum_{r=0}^{k} \binom{k}{r} u^{(k-r+1)} v^{(r)} + \sum_{r=0}^{k} \binom{k}{r} u^{(k-r)}v^{(r+1)} \\ &= \sum_{r=0}^{k} \binom{k}{r} u^{(k-r+1)} v^{(r)} + \sum_{r=1}^{k+1} \binom{k}{r-1} u^{(k-r+1)}v^{(r)} \\ &= u^{(k+1)}v + \sum_{r=1}^k \left (\binom{k}{r} + \binom{k}{r-1} \right)u^{(k-r+1)}v^{(r)} + u v^{(k+1)}\\ &= u^{(k+1)}v + \sum_{r=1}^k \binom{k+1}{r} u^{(k-r+1)}v^{(r)} + u v^{(k+1)}\\ &= \sum_{r=0}^{k+1} \binom{k+1}{r} u^{(k-r+1)}v^{(r)}\\ \end{align*} Therefore if our statement is true for \(n = k\) it is true for \(n = k+1\). Since it is true for \(n = 0\) by the principle of mathematical induction it is true for all integer \(n \geq 0\) Suppose \( y = \sin^{-1} x\), then \(y' = \frac{1}{\sqrt{1-x^2}}\), \(y'' = \frac{x}{(1-x^2)^{3/2}}\). Not that this means that \((1-x^2)y'' - xy' = 0\) (which is our formula when \(n = 0\)). Now apply Leibniz's formula to this. \begin{align*} 0 &= \left ( (1-x^2)y'' - xy' \right)^{(n)} \\ &= \left ( (1-x^2)y'' \right)^{(n)} -\left ( xy' \right)^{(n)} \\ &= \left ( (1-x^2)y^{(n+2)} - n\cdot 2x \cdot y^{(n+1)}-\binom{n}{2} \cdot 2 \cdot y^{(n)} \right )- \left (xy^{(n+1)}+ny^{(n)} \right) \\ &= (1-x^2)y^{(n+2)} - (2n+1)y^{(n+1)} - \left ( n(n-1)+n \right)y^{(n)} \\ &= (1-x^2)y^{(n+2)} - (2n+1)y^{(n+1)} - n^2y^{(n)} \\ \end{align*} as required