In this question, you should ignore issues of convergence.
Write down the binomial expansion, for \(\vert x \vert<1\,\), of
\(\;\dfrac{1}{1+x}\,\) and deduce that
%. By considering
%$
%\displaystyle \int \frac 1 {1+x} \, \d x
%\,,
%$
%show that
\[
\displaystyle
\ln (1+x) = -\sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac {(-x)^n}n
\,
\]
for \(\vert x \vert <1 \,\).
Write down the series expansion in powers of \(x\) of
\(\displaystyle \e^{-ax}\,\).
Use this expansion to show that
\[
\int_0^\infty \frac {\left(1- \e^{-ax}\right)\e^{-x}}x
\,\d x = \ln(1+a)
\ \ \ \ \ \ \ (\vert a \vert <1)\,.
\]
Deduce the value of
\[
\int_0^1 \frac{x^p - x^q}{\ln x} \, \d x
\ \ \ \ \ \ (\vert p\vert <1, \ \vert q\vert <1)
\,.
\]