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2018 Paper 1 Q6
D: 1500.0 B: 1500.0

Use the identity \[ 2 \sin P\,\sin Q = \cos(Q-P)-\cos(Q+P)\, \] to show that \[ 2\sin\theta \,\big (\sin\theta + \sin 3\theta + \cdots + \sin (2n-1)\theta\,\big ) = 1-\cos 2n\theta \,. \]

  1. Let \(A_n\) be the approximation to the area under the curve \(y=\sin x\) from \(x=0\) to \(x=\pi\), using \(n\) rectangular strips each of width \(\frac{{\displaystyle \pi}}{\displaystyle n}\), such that the midpoint of the top of each strip lies on the curve. Show that \[ A_n \sin \left( \frac{\pi}{2n} \right) = \frac \pi n\,. \]
  2. Let \(B_n\) be the approximation to the area under the curve \(y=\sin x\) from \(x=0\) to \(x=\pi\,\), using the trapezium rule with \(n\) strips each of width \(\frac{\displaystyle \pi}{ \displaystyle n}\). Show that \[B_n \sin \left( \frac{\pi}{2n} \right) = \frac{\pi}{n} \cos \left( \frac{\pi}{2n} \right) . \]
  3. Show that \[ \frac{1}{2}(A_n + B_n) = B_{2n}\,, \] and that \[ A_n B_{2n} = A^2_{2n}\, . \]


Solution: \begin{align*} && 2\sin\theta \,\big (\sin\theta + \sin 3\theta + \cdots + \sin (2n-1)\theta\,\big ) &= 2\sin\theta\sin\theta + 2\sin\theta\sin 3\theta + \cdots + 2\sin\theta\sin (2n-1)\theta \\ &&&= \cos((1-1)\theta) - \cos((1+1)\theta)+\cos((3-1)\theta)-\cos((3+1)\theta) + \cdots + \cos (((2n-1)-1)\theta) -\cos(((2n-1)+1)\theta) \\ &&&= \cos 0 - \cos(2n\theta) \\ &&&= 1 - \cos 2n \theta \end{align*}

  1. \(\,\)
    TikZ diagram
    Therefore the area is: \begin{align*} A_n &= \frac{\pi}{n} \sin \left ( \frac{\pi}{2n} \right) + \frac{\pi}{n} \sin \left ( \frac{3\pi}{2n} \right) + \frac{\pi}{n} \sin \left ( \frac{5\pi}{2n} \right) + \cdots \frac{\pi}{n} \sin \left ( \frac{(2n-1)\pi}{2n} \right) \\ &= \frac{\pi}{n} \left( \frac{1-\cos \frac{2n \pi}{2n}}{2\sin \frac{\pi}{2n}} \right) \\ &= \frac{\pi}{n} \frac{1}{\sin \frac{\pi}{2n}} \end{align*} as required
  2. TikZ diagram
    Therefore the area is: \begin{align*} && B_n &= \frac{\pi}{n} \frac{\sin(0)+\sin(\frac{\pi}{n})}{2}+\frac{\pi}{n} \frac{\sin(\frac{\pi}n)+\sin(\frac{2\pi}{n})}{2} + \cdots \frac{\pi}{n} \frac{\sin(\frac{(n-1)\pi}{n})+\sin(\frac{n\pi}{n})}{2} \\ &&&= \frac{\pi}{n} \left ( \sin \frac{\pi}{n} + \sin \frac{2\pi}{n} + \cdots+\sin \frac{(n-1)\pi}{n} \right) \\ \Rightarrow && 2\sin \left ( \frac{\pi}{2n} \right)B_n &= \frac{\pi}{2} \left (2\sin \left ( \frac{\pi}{2n} \right)\sin \frac{\pi}{n} + 2\sin \left ( \frac{\pi}{2n} \right)\sin \frac{2\pi}{n} + \cdots+2\sin \left ( \frac{\pi}{2n} \right)\sin \frac{(n-1)\pi}{n} \right) \\ &&&= \frac{\pi}2 \left ( \cos \frac{\pi}{2n} - \cos \frac{3\pi}{n} + \cos\frac{3\pi}{2n} - \cos \frac{5\pi}{2n} + \cos \frac{(2n-3)\pi}{2n} - \cos \frac{(2n-1)\pi}{2n} \right) \\ &&&= \frac{\pi}{n} \left ( \cos \frac{\pi}{2n} - \cos \left ( \pi - \frac{\pi}{2n} \right) \right) \\ &&&= 2 \frac{\pi}{n} \cos \frac{\pi}{2n} \\ \Rightarrow && \sin \left ( \frac{\pi}{2n} \right)B_n &= \frac{\pi}n \cos \frac{\pi}{2n} \end{align*} as required
  3. \begin{align*} \frac12(A_n+B_n) &= \frac12 \frac{\pi}{n} \frac{1}{\sin \frac{\pi}{2n}} \left ( 1 + \cos \frac{\pi}{2n} \right) \\ &= \frac{\pi}{n}\frac1{2 \sin \frac{\pi}{2n}} \left (2 \cos^2 \frac{\pi}{4n} \right) \\ &=\frac{\pi}{n} \frac{1}{4 \sin \frac{\pi}{4n} \cos \frac{\pi}{4n}} \left (2 \cos^2 \frac{\pi}{4n} \right) \\ &= \frac{\pi}{2n} \frac{\cos \frac{\pi}{4n}}{\sin \frac{\pi}{4n}} \\ &= B_{2n} \\ \\ A_nB_{2n} &= \frac{\pi}{n\sin \frac{\pi}{2n}} \cdot \frac{\pi}{2n} \frac{\cos \frac{\pi}{4n}}{\sin \frac{\pi}{4n}} \\ &= \frac{\pi^2}{(2n)^2} \frac{\cos \frac{\pi}{4n}}{\sin^2 \frac{\pi}{4n} \cos \frac{\pi}{4n}} \\ &= \left ( \frac{\pi}{2n} \frac{1}{\sin \frac{\pi}{4n}}\right)^2 \\ &= A_{2n}^2 \end{align*}

1997 Paper 1 Q7
D: 1516.0 B: 1500.0

Find constants \(a_{1}\), \(a_{2}\), \(u_{1}\) and \(u_{2}\) such that, whenever \({\mathrm P}\) is a cubic polynomial, \[\int_{-1}^{1}{\mathrm P}(t)\,{\mathrm d}t =a_{1}{\mathrm P}(u_{1})+a_{2}{\mathrm P}(u_{2}).\]


Solution: Since this is true for all cubic polynomials, it must be true in particular for \(1, x, x^2, x^3\), therefore: \begin{align*} \int_{-1}^{1} 1 {\mathrm d}t &=a_{1}+a_{2} &=2\\ \int_{-1}^{1} x {\mathrm d}t &=a_{1}u_1+a_{2}u_2 &= 0 \\ \int_{-1}^{1} x^2 {\mathrm d}t &=a_{1}u_1^2+a_{2}u_2^2 &= \frac23\\ \int_{-1}^{1} x^3 {\mathrm d}t &=a_{1}u_1^3+a_{2}u_2^3 &= 0\\ \end{align*} \begin{align*} && \begin{cases} a_{1}+a_{2} &=2 \\ a_{1}u_1+a_{2}u_2 &= 0 \\ a_{1}u_1^2+a_{2}u_2^2 &= \frac23\\ a_{1}u_1^3+a_{2}u_2^3 &= 0\\ \end{cases} \\ \Rightarrow && \begin{cases} a_{1}(u_1^2 - \frac13) + a_{2}(u_2^2 - \frac13) &= 0 \\ a_{1}u_1(u_1^2 - \frac13) + a_{2}u_2(u_2^2 - \frac13) &= 0 \end{cases} \\ \Rightarrow && \begin{cases} u_i = \pm \frac1{\sqrt{3}} \\ a_i = 1\end{cases} \end{align*} Therefore we have: \[\int_{-1}^{1}{\mathrm P}(t)\,{\mathrm d}t ={\mathrm P} \l \frac1{\sqrt{3}} \r+{\mathrm P}\l -\frac1{\sqrt{3}} \r \] [Note: this question is actually asking about Gauss-Legendre polynomials, and could be done directly by appealing to standard results]

1987 Paper 2 Q7
D: 1500.0 B: 1500.0

A definite integral can be evaluated approximately by means of the Trapezium rule: \[ \int_{x_{0}}^{x_{N}}\mathrm{f}(x)\,\mathrm{d}x\approx\tfrac{1}{2}h\left\{ \mathrm{f}\left(x_{0}\right)+2\mathrm{f}\left(x_{1}\right)+\ldots+2\mathrm{f}\left(x_{N-1}\right)+\mathrm{f}\left(x_{N}\right)\right\} , \] where the interval length \(h\) is given by \(Nh=x_{N}-x_{0}\), and \(x_{r}=x_{0}+rh\). Justify briefly this approximation. Use the Trapezium rule with intervals of unit length to evaluate approximately the integral \[ \int_{1}^{n}\ln x\,\mathrm{d}x, \] where \(n(>2)\) is an integer. Deduce that \(n!\approx\mathrm{g}(n)\), where \[ \mathrm{g}(n)=n^{n+\frac{1}{2}}\mathrm{e}^{1-n}, \] and show by means of a sketch, or otherwise, that \[ n!<\mathrm{g}(n). \] By using the Trapezium rule on the above integral with intervals of width \(k^{-1}\), where \(k\) is a positive integer, show that \[ \left(kn\right)!\approx k!n^{kn+\frac{1}{2}}\left(\frac{\mathrm{e}}{k}\right)^{k\left(1-n\right)}. \] Determine whether this approximation or \(\mathrm{g}(kn)\) is closer to \(\left(kn\right)!\).


Solution:

TikZ diagram
We can approximate the integral by \(N\) trapeziums, each with height \(x_{i+1}-x_{i} = \frac{x_N-x_0}{N} = \frac{h}{N}\). The will have area \(\frac{(f(x_i)+f(x_{i+1}))h}{2}\) and summing all these areas we will get: \[\frac12 h \l f(x_0) + f(x_1) + f(x_1)+f(x_2) + \cdots + f(x_{N-1})+f(x_N) \r = \frac12 h \l f(x_0) +2 f(x_1) + + \cdots +2f(x_{N-1})+f(x_N) \r\] But this is approximately the integral \(\displaystyle \int_{x_0}^{x_N} f(x) \d x\) \begin{align*} && \int_1^n \ln x \d x &= [x \ln x]_1^n - \int_1^n x \cdot \frac{1}{x} \d x \\ &&&= n \ln n - n+1 \\ &&&\approx \frac12 \l \ln 1 + 2\sum_{k=2}^{n-1} \ln k + \ln n \r \\ &&&= \ln (n!) - \frac12 \ln n \\ \Rightarrow && \ln (n!) &\approx n \ln n + \frac12 \ln n - n + 1 \\ \Rightarrow && n! &\approx \exp(n \ln n + \frac12 \ln n - n + 1) \\ &&&=n^{n+\frac12}e^{1-n} \end{align*} Since \(\ln x\) is a concave function, we should expect all the trapeziums to all lie under the curve, therefore this is always an underestimate for the integral, ie \(n! < g(n)\)
TikZ diagram
\begin{align*} && \int_1^n \ln x \d x &= n \ln n - n+1 \\ &&&\approx \frac12 k^{-1} \l \ln 1 + 2\sum_{r=1}^{k(n-1)-1} \ln \l 1+\frac{r}{k} \r + \ln n \r \\ &&&=\frac{1}{2k} \l 2\sum_{r=1}^{k(n-1)-1} \l \ln(k+r) - \ln k)\r + \ln n\r \\ &&&=\frac1{k} \l \ln ((k+k(n-1)-1)!) - \ln(k!) - (k(n-1)-1) \ln k+\frac12\ln n \r \\ &&&=\frac1{k} \l \ln ((kn-1)!) - \ln(k!) - (k(n-1)-1) \ln k+\frac12 \ln n \r \\ &&&=\frac1{k} \l \ln ((kn)! ) -\ln k -\ln n - \ln(k!) - (k(n-1)-1) \ln k+\frac12\ln n \r \\ &&&= \frac1{k} \l \ln ((kn)! ) - \ln(k!) - (k(n-1)) \ln k - \frac12 \ln n\r \\ \Rightarrow && \ln ((kn)!) &\approx kn \ln n - kn + k + \ln(k!) + (k(n-1)) \ln k + \frac12 \ln n\\ \Rightarrow && (kn)! &\approx n^{kn+\frac12}e^{-k(n-1)}k!k^{k(n-1)} \\ &&&= n^{kn+\frac12} k! \l \frac{e}{k} \r^{k(1-n)} \end{align*} I would expect this approximation to be a better approximation for \((kn)!\) since it is created using a finer mesh.