3 problems found
Use the identity \[ 2 \sin P\,\sin Q = \cos(Q-P)-\cos(Q+P)\, \] to show that \[ 2\sin\theta \,\big (\sin\theta + \sin 3\theta + \cdots + \sin (2n-1)\theta\,\big ) = 1-\cos 2n\theta \,. \]
Solution: \begin{align*} && 2\sin\theta \,\big (\sin\theta + \sin 3\theta + \cdots + \sin (2n-1)\theta\,\big ) &= 2\sin\theta\sin\theta + 2\sin\theta\sin 3\theta + \cdots + 2\sin\theta\sin (2n-1)\theta \\ &&&= \cos((1-1)\theta) - \cos((1+1)\theta)+\cos((3-1)\theta)-\cos((3+1)\theta) + \cdots + \cos (((2n-1)-1)\theta) -\cos(((2n-1)+1)\theta) \\ &&&= \cos 0 - \cos(2n\theta) \\ &&&= 1 - \cos 2n \theta \end{align*}
Find constants \(a_{1}\), \(a_{2}\), \(u_{1}\) and \(u_{2}\) such that, whenever \({\mathrm P}\) is a cubic polynomial, \[\int_{-1}^{1}{\mathrm P}(t)\,{\mathrm d}t =a_{1}{\mathrm P}(u_{1})+a_{2}{\mathrm P}(u_{2}).\]
Solution: Since this is true for all cubic polynomials, it must be true in particular for \(1, x, x^2, x^3\), therefore: \begin{align*} \int_{-1}^{1} 1 {\mathrm d}t &=a_{1}+a_{2} &=2\\ \int_{-1}^{1} x {\mathrm d}t &=a_{1}u_1+a_{2}u_2 &= 0 \\ \int_{-1}^{1} x^2 {\mathrm d}t &=a_{1}u_1^2+a_{2}u_2^2 &= \frac23\\ \int_{-1}^{1} x^3 {\mathrm d}t &=a_{1}u_1^3+a_{2}u_2^3 &= 0\\ \end{align*} \begin{align*} && \begin{cases} a_{1}+a_{2} &=2 \\ a_{1}u_1+a_{2}u_2 &= 0 \\ a_{1}u_1^2+a_{2}u_2^2 &= \frac23\\ a_{1}u_1^3+a_{2}u_2^3 &= 0\\ \end{cases} \\ \Rightarrow && \begin{cases} a_{1}(u_1^2 - \frac13) + a_{2}(u_2^2 - \frac13) &= 0 \\ a_{1}u_1(u_1^2 - \frac13) + a_{2}u_2(u_2^2 - \frac13) &= 0 \end{cases} \\ \Rightarrow && \begin{cases} u_i = \pm \frac1{\sqrt{3}} \\ a_i = 1\end{cases} \end{align*} Therefore we have: \[\int_{-1}^{1}{\mathrm P}(t)\,{\mathrm d}t ={\mathrm P} \l \frac1{\sqrt{3}} \r+{\mathrm P}\l -\frac1{\sqrt{3}} \r \] [Note: this question is actually asking about Gauss-Legendre polynomials, and could be done directly by appealing to standard results]
A definite integral can be evaluated approximately by means of the Trapezium rule: \[ \int_{x_{0}}^{x_{N}}\mathrm{f}(x)\,\mathrm{d}x\approx\tfrac{1}{2}h\left\{ \mathrm{f}\left(x_{0}\right)+2\mathrm{f}\left(x_{1}\right)+\ldots+2\mathrm{f}\left(x_{N-1}\right)+\mathrm{f}\left(x_{N}\right)\right\} , \] where the interval length \(h\) is given by \(Nh=x_{N}-x_{0}\), and \(x_{r}=x_{0}+rh\). Justify briefly this approximation. Use the Trapezium rule with intervals of unit length to evaluate approximately the integral \[ \int_{1}^{n}\ln x\,\mathrm{d}x, \] where \(n(>2)\) is an integer. Deduce that \(n!\approx\mathrm{g}(n)\), where \[ \mathrm{g}(n)=n^{n+\frac{1}{2}}\mathrm{e}^{1-n}, \] and show by means of a sketch, or otherwise, that \[ n!<\mathrm{g}(n). \] By using the Trapezium rule on the above integral with intervals of width \(k^{-1}\), where \(k\) is a positive integer, show that \[ \left(kn\right)!\approx k!n^{kn+\frac{1}{2}}\left(\frac{\mathrm{e}}{k}\right)^{k\left(1-n\right)}. \] Determine whether this approximation or \(\mathrm{g}(kn)\) is closer to \(\left(kn\right)!\).
Solution: