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2019 Paper 2 Q8
D: 1500.0 B: 1638.7
matrices multiplicative function determinant 2x2 matrix identity matrix matrix properties proof function properties

The domain of the function f is the set of all \(2 \times 2\) matrices and its range is the set of real numbers. Thus, if \(M\) is a \(2 \times 2\) matrix, then \(f(M) \in \mathbb{R}\). The function f has the property that \(f(MN) = f(M)f(N)\) for any \(2 \times 2\) matrices \(M\) and \(N\).

  1. You are given that there is a matrix \(M\) such that \(f(M) \neq 0\). Let \(I\) be the \(2 \times 2\) identity matrix. By considering \(f(MI)\), show that \(f(I) = 1\).
  2. Let \(J = \begin{pmatrix} 0 & 1 \\ 1 & 0 \end{pmatrix}\). You are given that \(f(J) \neq 1\). By considering \(J^2\), evaluate \(f(J)\). Using \(J\), show that, for any real numbers \(a\), \(b\), \(c\) and \(d\), $$.f\left(\begin{pmatrix} a & b \\ c & d \end{pmatrix}\right) = -f\left(\begin{pmatrix} c & d \\ a & b \end{pmatrix}\right) = f\left(\begin{pmatrix} d & c \\ b & a \end{pmatrix}\right)$$
  3. Let \(K = \begin{pmatrix} 1 & 0 \\ 0 & k \end{pmatrix}\) where \(k \in \mathbb{R}\). Use \(K\) to show that, if the second row of the matrix \(A\) is a multiple of the first row, then \(f(A) = 0\).
  4. Let \(P = \begin{pmatrix} 1 & 1 \\ 0 & 1 \end{pmatrix}\). By considering the matrices \(P^2\), \(P^{-1}\), and \(K^{-1}PK\) for suitable values of \(k\), evaluate \(f(P)\).

Solution:

  1. Consider \(f(M) = f(MI) = f(M)f(I)\). Since \(f(M) \neq 0\) we can divide by \(f(M)\) to obtain \(f(I) = 1\)
  2. Let \(J = \begin{pmatrix} 0 & 1 \\ 1 & 0 \end{pmatrix}\), then \(J^2 = \begin{pmatrix} 1 & 0 \\ 0 & 1 \end{pmatrix} = I\). Therefore \(1 = f(I) = f(J^2) = f(J)f(J) \Rightarrow f(J) = \pm 1 \Rightarrow f(J) = -1\) since \(f(J) \neq 1\). \begin{align*} \begin{pmatrix} a & b \\ c & d \end{pmatrix}J &= \begin{pmatrix} a & b \\ c & d \end{pmatrix}\begin{pmatrix} 0 & 1 \\ 1 & 0 \end{pmatrix} \\ &= \begin{pmatrix} b & a \\ d & c \end{pmatrix} \\ J\begin{pmatrix} a & b \\ c & d \end{pmatrix} &= \begin{pmatrix} 0 & 1 \\ 1 & 0 \end{pmatrix}\begin{pmatrix} a & b \\ c & d \end{pmatrix} \\ &= \begin{pmatrix} c & d \\ a & b \end{pmatrix} \\ J\begin{pmatrix} a & b \\ c & d \end{pmatrix}J &=\begin{pmatrix} d & c \\ b & a \end{pmatrix} \end{align*} Therefore \(f\left(\begin{pmatrix} c & d \\ a & b \end{pmatrix}\right) = f \left (J\begin{pmatrix} a & b \\ c & d \end{pmatrix} \right) = f(J) f\left(\begin{pmatrix} a & b \\ c & d \end{pmatrix}\right) = -f\left(\begin{pmatrix} a & b \\ c & d \end{pmatrix}\right)\) and \(f\left(\begin{pmatrix} d & c \\ b & a \end{pmatrix}\right) = f\left(J\begin{pmatrix} a & b \\ c & d \end{pmatrix}J \right) = f(J)f\left(\begin{pmatrix} a & b \\ c & d \end{pmatrix}\right)f(J) = f\left(\begin{pmatrix} a & b \\ c & d \end{pmatrix}\right)\) as required.
  3. First consider \(O\) the matrix of \(0\), then \begin{align*} && JO &= O \\ \Rightarrow && f(JO) &= f(O) \\ \Rightarrow && f(J)f(O) &= f(O) \\ \Rightarrow && -f(O) &= f(O) \\ \Rightarrow && f(O) &= 0 \end{align*} Now consider \(K_{k} = \begin{pmatrix} 1 & 0 \\ 0 & k \end{pmatrix}\). Suppose \(A = \begin{pmatrix} a & b \\ ka & kb \end{pmatrix}\) then \begin{align*} K_{\frac1k}A &= \begin{pmatrix} 1 & 0 \\ 0 & \frac1k \end{pmatrix} \begin{pmatrix} a & b \\ ka & kb \end{pmatrix} \\ &= \begin{pmatrix} a & b \\ a & b \end{pmatrix} \end{align*} And so \(f(K_{\frac1k}A) = f\left ( \begin{pmatrix} a & b \\ a & b \end{pmatrix} \right) = - f \left ( \begin{pmatrix} a & b \\ a & b \end{pmatrix} \right) = 0\), therefore either \(f(K_{\frac1k}) = 0\) or \(f(A) = 0\), but we know that \(f(I) \neq 0\) therefore \(f(A) = 0\).
  4. Let \(P = \begin{pmatrix} 1 & 1 \\ 0 & 1 \end{pmatrix}\), then \(P^2 = \begin{pmatrix} 1 &2 \\ 0 & 1 \end{pmatrix}\), \(P^{-1} = \begin{pmatrix} 1 & -1 \\ 0 & 1 \end{pmatrix}\), \(K_k^{-1}PK_k = K_k^{-1}\begin{pmatrix} 1 & k \\ 0 & k \end{pmatrix} = \begin{pmatrix} 1 & k \\ 0 & 1 \end{pmatrix}\). If \(A\) has an inverse then \(f(A) \neq 0\) since \(1 = f(I) = f(A)f(A^{-1})\), in particular, \(f(A)f(A^{-1}) = 1\). Using this for \(K_2\) we have: \(f(P)^2 = f(P^2) = f(K_2^{-1}PK_2) = f(P)\) therefore \(f(P) = 0, 1\), but since \(f(P)\) has an inverse, \(f(P) \neq 0\) so \(f(P) = 1\)

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