Prove that
\[
\sum_{r=1}^{n}r(r+1)(r+2)(r+3)(r+4)=\tfrac{1}{6}n(n+1)(n+2)(n+3)(n+4)(n+5)
\]
and deduce that
\[
\sum_{r=1}^{n}r^{5}<\tfrac{1}{6}n(n+1)(n+2)(n+3)(n+4)(n+5).
\]
Prove that, if \(n>1,\)
\[
\sum_{r=0}^{n-1}r^{5}>\tfrac{1}{6}(n-5)(n-4)(n-3)(n-2)(n-1)n.
\]
Let \(\mathrm{f}\) be an increasing function. If the limits
\[
\lim_{n\rightarrow\infty}\sum_{r=0}^{n-1}\frac{a}{n}\mathrm{f}\left(\frac{ra}{n}\right)\qquad\mbox{ and }\qquad\lim_{n\rightarrow\infty}\sum_{r=1}^{n}\frac{a}{n}\mathrm{f}\left(\frac{ra}{n}\right)
\]
both exist and are equal, the definite integral \({\displaystyle \int_{0}^{a}\mathrm{f}(x)\,\mathrm{d}x}\)
is defined to be their common value. Using this definition, prove
that
\[
\int_{0}^{a}x^{5}\,\mathrm{d}x=\tfrac{1}{6}a^6.
\]
Solution:
Claim: \[
\sum_{r=1}^{n}r(r+1)(r+2)(r+3)(r+4)=\tfrac{1}{6}n(n+1)(n+2)(n+3)(n+4)(n+5)
\]
Proof: (By Induction)
Base case: (n=1)
\begin{align*}
LHS &= 1 \cdot 2 \cdot 3 \cdot 4 \cdot 5 = 5! \\
RHS &= \frac16 1 \cdot 2 \cdot 3 \cdot 4 \cdot 5 \cdot 6 = 5!
\end{align*}
Therefore the base case is true.
Inductive step: Suppose our statement is true for some \(n=k\), then consider \(n = k+1\)
\begin{align*}
\sum_{r=1}^{k+1} r(r+1)(r+2)(r+3)(r+4) &= \sum_{r=1}^{k} r(r+1)(r+2)(r+3)(r+4) + (k+1)(k+2)(k+3)(k+4)(k+5) \\
&\underbrace{=}_{\text{assumption}} \frac16 k(k+1)(k+2)(k+3)(k+4)(k+5) + (k+1)(k+2)(k+3)(k+4)(k+5) \\
&= (k+1)(k+2)(k+3)(k+4)(k+5) \l \frac{k}{6} +1\r \\
&= \frac16 (k+1)(k+2)(k+3)(k+4)(k+5)(k+6)
\end{align*}
Therefore our statement is true for \(n = k+1\).
Therefore since our statement is true for \(n=1\) and if it is true for \(n=k\) then it is true for \(n = k+1\) by the principle of mathematical induction it is true for all \(n \geq 1\)
Since \begin{align*}
\sum_{r=1}^{n}r^5 &< \sum_{r=1}^{n}r(r+1)(r+2)(r+3)(r+4) \\
&= \frac16 n(n+1)(n+2)(n+3)(n+4)(n+5)
\end{align*}