Problems

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Solution:

1. Consider \(f(M) = f(MI) = f(M)f(I)\). Since \(f(M) \neq 0\) we can divide by \(f(M)\) to obtain \(f(I) = 1\)
2. Let \(J = \begin{pmatrix} 0 & 1 \\ 1 & 0 \end{pmatrix}\), then \(J^2 = \begin{pmatrix} 1 & 0 \\ 0 & 1 \end{pmatrix} = I\). Therefore \(1 = f(I) = f(J^2) = f(J)f(J) \Rightarrow f(J) = \pm 1 \Rightarrow f(J) = -1\) since \(f(J) \neq 1\). \begin{align*} \begin{pmatrix} a & b \\ c & d \end{pmatrix}J &= \begin{pmatrix} a & b \\ c & d \end{pmatrix}\begin{pmatrix} 0 & 1 \\ 1 & 0 \end{pmatrix} \\ &= \begin{pmatrix} b & a \\ d & c \end{pmatrix} \\ J\begin{pmatrix} a & b \\ c & d \end{pmatrix} &= \begin{pmatrix} 0 & 1 \\ 1 & 0 \end{pmatrix}\begin{pmatrix} a & b \\ c & d \end{pmatrix} \\ &= \begin{pmatrix} c & d \\ a & b \end{pmatrix} \\ J\begin{pmatrix} a & b \\ c & d \end{pmatrix}J &=\begin{pmatrix} d & c \\ b & a \end{pmatrix} \end{align*} Therefore \(f\left(\begin{pmatrix} c & d \\ a & b \end{pmatrix}\right) = f \left (J\begin{pmatrix} a & b \\ c & d \end{pmatrix} \right) = f(J) f\left(\begin{pmatrix} a & b \\ c & d \end{pmatrix}\right) = -f\left(\begin{pmatrix} a & b \\ c & d \end{pmatrix}\right)\) and \(f\left(\begin{pmatrix} d & c \\ b & a \end{pmatrix}\right) = f\left(J\begin{pmatrix} a & b \\ c & d \end{pmatrix}J \right) = f(J)f\left(\begin{pmatrix} a & b \\ c & d \end{pmatrix}\right)f(J) = f\left(\begin{pmatrix} a & b \\ c & d \end{pmatrix}\right)\) as required.
3. First consider \(O\) the matrix of \(0\), then \begin{align*} && JO &= O \\ \Rightarrow && f(JO) &= f(O) \\ \Rightarrow && f(J)f(O) &= f(O) \\ \Rightarrow && -f(O) &= f(O) \\ \Rightarrow && f(O) &= 0 \end{align*} Now consider \(K_{k} = \begin{pmatrix} 1 & 0 \\ 0 & k \end{pmatrix}\). Suppose \(A = \begin{pmatrix} a & b \\ ka & kb \end{pmatrix}\) then \begin{align*} K_{\frac1k}A &= \begin{pmatrix} 1 & 0 \\ 0 & \frac1k \end{pmatrix} \begin{pmatrix} a & b \\ ka & kb \end{pmatrix} \\ &= \begin{pmatrix} a & b \\ a & b \end{pmatrix} \end{align*} And so \(f(K_{\frac1k}A) = f\left ( \begin{pmatrix} a & b \\ a & b \end{pmatrix} \right) = - f \left ( \begin{pmatrix} a & b \\ a & b \end{pmatrix} \right) = 0\), therefore either \(f(K_{\frac1k}) = 0\) or \(f(A) = 0\), but we know that \(f(I) \neq 0\) therefore \(f(A) = 0\).
4. Let \(P = \begin{pmatrix} 1 & 1 \\ 0 & 1 \end{pmatrix}\), then \(P^2 = \begin{pmatrix} 1 &2 \\ 0 & 1 \end{pmatrix}\), \(P^{-1} = \begin{pmatrix} 1 & -1 \\ 0 & 1 \end{pmatrix}\), \(K_k^{-1}PK_k = K_k^{-1}\begin{pmatrix} 1 & k \\ 0 & k \end{pmatrix} = \begin{pmatrix} 1 & k \\ 0 & 1 \end{pmatrix}\). If \(A\) has an inverse then \(f(A) \neq 0\) since \(1 = f(I) = f(A)f(A^{-1})\), in particular, \(f(A)f(A^{-1}) = 1\). Using this for \(K_2\) we have: \(f(P)^2 = f(P^2) = f(K_2^{-1}PK_2) = f(P)\) therefore \(f(P) = 0, 1\), but since \(f(P)\) has an inverse, \(f(P) \neq 0\) so \(f(P) = 1\)

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Solution:

1. Suppose \((x,y)\) is on the line of invariant points, then \begin{align*} &&\begin{pmatrix} x \\ y \end{pmatrix} &= \begin{pmatrix} a & b \\ c & d \end{pmatrix} \begin{pmatrix} x \\ y \end{pmatrix} \\ &&&= \begin{pmatrix} ax + by \\ cx + dy \end{pmatrix} \\ \Rightarrow && \begin{cases} (a-1)x + by = 0 \\ (cx + (d-1)y = 0 \end{cases} \tag{*} \end{align*} Therefore either \(x = 0, y = 0\) or \((a-1)(d-1)-bc = 0\) \(\Rightarrow ((a-1)(d-1)-bc)xy = 0\). We also know this is true for all values \(x,y\) on the line of invariant points. If there is one where both \(x \neq 0, y \neq 0\) we are done, otherwise the line of invariant points must be one of the axes. ie but then one of \(\begin{pmatrix} a \\ c \end{pmatrix} = \begin{pmatrix} 1 \\ 0 \end{pmatrix}\) or \(\begin{pmatrix} b \\ d \end{pmatrix} = \begin{pmatrix} 0 \\ 1 \end{pmatrix}\) is true and we'd also be done. If the line doesn't go through the origin then there are points on every line, not equal to the origin which are fixed. But then every point on those lines is fixed (since \(\mathbf{A}\) is a linear operator) and so every point is fixed. ie \(\mathbf{A} = \mathbf{I}\).
2. Suppose \((a-1)(d-1) -bc = 0\) and \(b \neq 0\) then I claim that \(y = \frac{1-a}{b}x\) is a line of invariant points. It's clear that the first equation will be satisfied in \((*)\) so it suffices to check the second, but the first condition is equivalent to the equations being linearly dependent, ie both equations are satisfied. If \(b = 0\) then \((a-1)(d-1) = 0\), so our matrix must look like \(\begin{pmatrix} 1 & 0 \\ c & d\end{pmatrix}\) (if \(d \neq 1\))or \(\begin{pmatrix} * & 0 \\ * & 1\end{pmatrix}\). In the first case, the line \(y = \frac{c}{1-d}x\) and in the second \(x = 0\) is an invariant line.
3. Suppose the invariant line is \(y = mx+k\) then we must have that \begin{align*} \begin{pmatrix} a & b \\ c & d \end{pmatrix} \begin{pmatrix} x \\ mx + k \end{pmatrix} &= \begin{pmatrix} (a + mb)x + bk \\ (c+dm)x + dk \end{pmatrix} \end{align*} and \((c+dm)x + dk = m((a + mb)x + bk) +k \Rightarrow k(d-mb-1) = x(-c+(a-d)m+m^2b)\) Since this equation must be true for all values of \(x\), and \(k \neq 0\) we can say that \(mb = d-1\) and \(-c+(a-d)m+m^2b = 0\), ie \(-c + (a-d)m + m(d-1) = 0 \Rightarrow (a-1)m-c = 0\) if \(m \neq 0\) then \((a-1)\frac{(d-1)}{b} - c = 0\) ie our desired relation is true. If \(m = 0\) then we must have that \(y = k\) is an invariant line, ie \(d-1=0\) and \(c=0\) which also satisfies our relation.

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Solution: \begin{align*} \mathbf{M}^2 &= \begin{pmatrix} 0 & - 1 \\ 1 & 0 \end{pmatrix}^2 \\ &= \begin{pmatrix} 0 \cdot 0 + (-1) \cdot 1 & 0 \cdot (-1) + (-1) \cdot 0 \\ 1 \cdot 0 + 0 \cdot 1 & 1 \cdot (-1) + 0 \cdot 0 \end{pmatrix} \\ &= \begin{pmatrix} -1 & 0 \\ 0 & -1\end{pmatrix} \\ &= - \mathbf{I} \end{align*} \begin{align*} \exp(\theta \mathbf{M}) &= \sum_{r=0}^\infty \frac1{r!} (\theta \mathbf{M})^r \\ &= \sum_{r=0}^\infty \frac{1}{r!} \theta^r \mathbf{M}^r \\ &= \cos \theta \mathbf{I} + \sin \theta \mathbf{M} \\ &= \begin{pmatrix} \cos \theta & -\sin \theta \\ \sin \theta & \cos \theta \end{pmatrix} \end{align*} This is a rotation of \(\theta\) degrees about the origin. \begin{align*} && \mathbf{N}^2 &= \begin{pmatrix} 0 & 1 \\ 0 & 0 \end{pmatrix}^2 \\ && &= \begin{pmatrix} 0 & 0 \\ 0 & 0 \end{pmatrix} \\ \Rightarrow && \exp(s\mathbf{N}) &= \sum_{r=0}^\infty \frac{1}{r!} (s\mathbf{N})^r \\ &&&= \mathbf{I} + s \mathbf{N} \\ &&&= \begin{pmatrix} 1 &s \\ 0 & 1 \end{pmatrix} \end{align*} This is a shear, leaving the \(y\)-axis invariant, sending \((1,1)\) to \((1+s, 1)\). Suppose those matrices commute, for all \(s\), ie \begin{align*} && \begin{pmatrix} 1 &s \\ 0 & 1 \end{pmatrix}\begin{pmatrix} \cos \theta & -\sin \theta \\ \sin \theta & \cos \theta \end{pmatrix} &= \begin{pmatrix} \cos \theta & -\sin \theta \\ \sin \theta & \cos \theta \end{pmatrix}\begin{pmatrix} 1 &s \\ 0 & 1 \end{pmatrix} \\ \Rightarrow && \begin{pmatrix} \cos \theta - s \sin \theta & -\sin \theta + s \cos \theta \\ \sin \theta & \cos \theta \end{pmatrix} &= \begin{pmatrix} \cos \theta & s \cos \theta - \sin \theta \\ \sin \theta & s \sin \theta + \cos \theta \end{pmatrix} \\ \Rightarrow && \sin \theta &= 0 \\ \Rightarrow && \theta &=n \pi, n \in \mathbb{Z} \end{align*} Clearly it doesn't matter when we do nothing. If we are rotating by \(\pi\) then it also doesn't matter which order we do it in as the stretch happens in both directions equally.

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Solution:

1. This is false, for example let \(\mathbf{A} = \begin{pmatrix} 0 & 1 \\ 0 & 1 \end{pmatrix}\) and \(\mathbf{B} = \begin{pmatrix} 0 & 1 \\ 0 & 0 \end{pmatrix}\), then \begin{align*} \mathbf{AB} &= \begin{pmatrix} 0 & 1 \\ 0 & 1 \end{pmatrix}\begin{pmatrix} 0 & 1 \\ 0 & 0 \end{pmatrix} \\ &= \begin{pmatrix}0 & 0 \\ 0 & 0\end{pmatrix} \\ \mathbf{BA} &= \begin{pmatrix} 0 & 1 \\ 0 & 0 \end{pmatrix}\begin{pmatrix} 0 & 1 \\ 0 & 1 \end{pmatrix} \\ &= \begin{pmatrix}0 & 1 \\ 0 & 0\end{pmatrix} \\ \end{align*}
2. This is also false, using the same matrices from part (i), we find: \begin{align*} (\mathbf{A - B})(\mathbf{A + B}) &= \mathbf{A}^2-\mathbf{BA}+\mathbf{AB}-\mathbf{B}^2 \\ &= \mathbf{A}^2-\mathbf{B}^2+\begin{pmatrix}0 & 1 \\ 0 & 0\end{pmatrix} \\ &\neq \mathbf{A}^2-\mathbf{B}^2 \end{align*}
3. This is true. Claim: The equation \(\mathbf{AX=0}\) has a non-zero solution \(\mathbf{X}\) if and only if \(\det\mathbf{A}=0.\) Proof: \((\Rightarrow)\) Suppose \(\det\mathbf{A} \neq 0\) then \(\mathbf{A}\) has an inverse, and so we must have \(\mathbf{A}^{-1}\mathbf{AX} = \mathbf{0} \Rightarrow \mathbf{X} = \mathbf{0}\). \((\Leftarrow)\) Suppose \(\det \mathbf{A} = 0\) then \(ad-bc=0\), so consider the matrix \(\mathbf{X} = \begin{pmatrix} d & d\\ -c & -c\end{pmatrix}\) (or if this is zero, \(\mathbf{X} = \begin{pmatrix} a & a\\ -b & -b\end{pmatrix}\))
4. This is false. Consider \(\mathbf{A} = \mathbf{B} = \mathbf{0}\), then \(\mathbf{X} = \begin{pmatrix} 0 & x \\ 0 & 0\end{pmatrix}\) has the property that \(\mathbf{X}^2 = \mathbf{0}\) for all \(x\), so at least more than 2 values

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Solution: If $\mathbf{J}=\begin{pmatrix}1 & 1\\ 1 & 1 \end{pmatrix}\(, them \)\mathbf{J}^2=\begin{pmatrix}2 & 2\\ 2 & 2 \end{pmatrix} = 2\mathbf{J}\(. Therefore \)\mathbf{J}^n = 2\mathbf{J}^{n-1} = 2^{n-1}\mathbf{J}$ Let \(\mathbf{A}=\mathbf{I}+a\mathbf{J}\) then \begin{align*} \mathbf{A}^2 &=\l \mathbf{I}+a\mathbf{J}\r^2 \\ &= \mathbf{I}+2a\mathbf{J} + a^2\mathbf{J}^2 \\ &= \mathbf{I}+2a\mathbf{J} + 2a^2\mathbf{J} \\ &= \mathbf{I}+(2a+ 2a^2)\mathbf{J} \\ &= \mathbf{I}+\frac12(1+4a+ 4a^2-1)\mathbf{J} \\ &= \mathbf{I}+\frac12((1+2a)^2-1)\mathbf{J} \\ \end{align*} \begin{align*} \mathbf{A}^3 &=\l \mathbf{I}+a\mathbf{J}\r^3 \\ &= \mathbf{I}+3a\mathbf{J} + a^2\mathbf{J} + a^3\mathbf{J}^3 \\ &= \mathbf{I}+3a\mathbf{J} + 6a^2\mathbf{J} + 4a^3\mathbf{J} \\ &= \mathbf{I}+(3a+ 6a^3+4a^3)\mathbf{J} \\ &= \mathbf{I}+\frac12(1+3\cdot2a+3\dot4a^2+ 8a^3-1)\mathbf{J} \\ &= \mathbf{I}+\frac12((1+2a)^3-1)\mathbf{J} \\ \end{align*} \begin{align*} \mathbf{A}^4 &=\l \mathbf{I}+a\mathbf{J}\r^4 \\ &= \mathbf{I}+4a\mathbf{J} + 6a^2\mathbf{J}^2 + 4a^3\mathbf{J}^3+a^4\mathbf{J}^4 \\ &= \mathbf{I}+4a\mathbf{J} + 12a^2\mathbf{J} + 16a^3\mathbf{J}+8a^4\mathbf{J}\\ &= \mathbf{I}+(4a+ 12a^3+16a^3+8a^4)\mathbf{J} \\ &= \mathbf{I}+\frac12(1+4\cdot2a+6\cdot4a^2+ 4\cdot8a^3+16a^4-1)\mathbf{J} \\ &= \mathbf{I}+\frac12((1+2a)^4-1)\mathbf{J} \\ \end{align*} Claim: \(\mathbf{A}^k = \mathbf{I} + \frac12 ((1+2a)^{k}-1)\mathbf{J}\) Proof: Firstly, note that \(\mathbf{I}\) commutes with everything, so we can just apply the binomial theorem as if we were using real numbers: \begin{align*} \mathbf{A}^k &=\l \mathbf{I}+a\mathbf{J}\r^k \\ &= \sum_{i=0}^k \binom{k}{i}a^i\mathbf{J}^i \\ &= \mathbf{I} + \sum_{i=1}^k \binom{k}{i}a^i2^{i-1}\mathbf{J} \\ &= \mathbf{I} + \frac12\l\sum_{i=1}^k \binom{k}{i}a^i2^{i}\r\mathbf{J} \\ &= \mathbf{I} + \frac12\l\sum_{i=0}^k \binom{k}{i}a^i2^{i} - 1\r\mathbf{J} \\ &= \mathbf{I} + \frac12\l(1+2a)^k - 1\r\mathbf{J} \end{align*} as required

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Solution:

We can see that \(\mathbf{M}\) sends \(\begin{pmatrix} 1 \\ \tan \alpha \end{pmatrix}\) to itself, and \(\begin{pmatrix} -\tan \alpha \\ 1 \end{pmatrix}\) to \(\begin{pmatrix} -\tan \alpha \\ 1 \end{pmatrix} + k \begin{pmatrix} 1 \\ \tan \alpha \end{pmatrix}\) Therefore, we have: \begin{align*} && \mathbf{M} \begin{pmatrix} 1 & -\tan \alpha \\ \tan \alpha & 1 \end{pmatrix} &= \begin{pmatrix} 1 & k - \tan \alpha \\ \tan \alpha & 1 + k\tan \alpha \end{pmatrix} \\ && \sec \alpha \mathbf{M} \begin{pmatrix} \cos \alpha & -\sin\alpha \\ \sin \alpha & \cos \alpha \end{pmatrix} &= \begin{pmatrix} 1 & k - \tan \alpha \\ \tan \alpha & 1 + k\tan \alpha \end{pmatrix} \\ \Rightarrow && \mathbf{M} &= \cos \alpha\begin{pmatrix} 1 & k - \tan \alpha \\ \tan \alpha & 1 + k\tan \alpha \end{pmatrix}\begin{pmatrix} \cos \alpha & \sin\alpha \\ -\sin \alpha & \cos \alpha \end{pmatrix} \\ &&&= \cos\alpha \begin{pmatrix}\cos \alpha -k\sin\alpha + \frac{\sin^2 \alpha}{\cos \alpha} & \sin \alpha + k \cos \alpha - \sin \alpha \\ \sin \alpha - \sin \alpha - k\frac{\sin^2 \alpha}{\cos \alpha} & \frac{\sin^2 \alpha}{\cos \alpha} + \cos\alpha + k \sin \alpha \end{pmatrix} \\ &&&= \begin{pmatrix}1-k\sin\alpha\cos\alpha & k\cos^{2}\alpha\\ -k\sin^{2}\alpha & 1+k\sin\alpha\cos\alpha \end{pmatrix} \end{align*} Suppose $\begin{pmatrix}p & q\\ r & t \end{pmatrix} \mathbf{M} = \mathbf{M} \begin{pmatrix}p & q\\ r & t \end{pmatrix}$ then, \begin{align*} && \begin{pmatrix}p & q\\ r & t \end{pmatrix} \mathbf{M} &= \mathbf{M} \begin{pmatrix}p & q\\ r & t \end{pmatrix} \\ \Leftrightarrow && \small \begin{pmatrix} p(1-k\sin\alpha\cos\alpha) + q(-k\sin^{2}\alpha) & pk\cos^{2}\alpha + q(1+k\sin\alpha\cos\alpha)\\ r(1-k\sin\alpha\cos\alpha) + t(-k\sin^{2}\alpha) & rk\cos^{2}\alpha + t(1+k\sin\alpha\cos\alpha)\end{pmatrix} &= \\ && \qquad \small \begin{pmatrix} p(1-k\sin\alpha\cos\alpha) + rk\cos^{2}\alpha & q(1-k\sin\alpha\cos\alpha) + tk\cos^{2}\alpha \\ -pk\sin^{2}\alpha + r(1+k\sin\alpha\cos\alpha) & -qk\sin^{2}\alpha+t (1+k\sin\alpha\cos\alpha) \end{pmatrix} \\ \Leftrightarrow && \begin{cases} p(1-k\sin\alpha\cos\alpha) + q(-k\sin^{2}\alpha) &= p(1-k\sin\alpha\cos\alpha) + rk\cos^{2}\alpha \\ pk\cos^{2}\alpha + q(1+k\sin\alpha\cos\alpha) &=q(1-k\sin\alpha\cos\alpha) + tk\cos^{2}\alpha \\ r(1-k\sin\alpha\cos\alpha) + t(-k\sin^{2}\alpha) &=-pk\sin^{2}\alpha + r(1+k\sin\alpha\cos\alpha) \\ rk\cos^{2}\alpha + t(1+k\sin\alpha\cos\alpha) &= -qk\sin^{2}\alpha+t (1+k\sin\alpha\cos\alpha) \end{cases} \\ \Leftrightarrow && \begin{cases} -q\tan^{2}\alpha &= r \\ p\cos^{2}\alpha + q\sin\alpha\cos\alpha &=-q\sin\alpha\cos\alpha + t\cos^{2}\alpha \\ -r\sin\alpha\cos\alpha + -t\sin^{2}\alpha &=-p\sin^{2}\alpha + r\sin\alpha\cos\alpha \\ r &= -q\tan^{2}\alpha \end{cases} \\ \Leftrightarrow && \begin{cases} -q\tan^{2}\alpha &= r \\ 2q\sin\alpha\cos\alpha &=(t-p)\cos^{2}\alpha \\ (p-t)\sin^{2}\alpha &=2r\sin\alpha\cos\alpha \end{cases} \\ \Leftrightarrow && \begin{cases} -q\tan^{2}\alpha &= r \\ 2q\tan \alpha &=(t-p) \end{cases} \\ \end{align*} as required