2001 Paper 2 Q8

Year: 2001
Paper: 2
Question Number: 8

Course: LFM Pure
Section: Differential equations

Difficulty: 1600.0 Banger: 1488.2

Problem

The function \(\f\) satisfies \(\f(x+1)= \f(x)\) and \(\f(x)>0\) for all \(x\).
  1. Give an example of such a function.
  2. The function \(\F\) satisfies \[ \frac{\d \F}{\d x} =\f(x) \] and \(\F(0)=0\). Show that \(\F(n) = n\F(1)\), for any positive integer \(n\).
  3. Let \(y\) be the solution of the differential equation \[ \frac{\d y}{\d x} +\f(x) y=0 \] that satisfies \(y=1\) when \(x=0\). Show that \(y(n) \to 0\) as \(n\to\infty\), where \(n= 1,\,2,\, 3,\, \ldots\)

Solution

  1. \(f(x) = \lfloor x \rfloor+1\)
  2. Clearly \(\displaystyle F(x) = \int_0^x f(t) \d t\), in particular: \begin{align*} && F(n) &= \int_0^n f(t) \d t \\ &&&= \sum_{i=1}^n \int_{i-1}^i f(t) \d t \\ &&&= \sum_{i=1}^n \int_{0}^1 f(t-i+1) \d t \\ &&&= \sum_{i=1}^n \int_{0}^1 f(t) \d t \\ &&&= n \int_{0}^1 f(t) \d t\\ &&&= n F(1) \end{align*}
  3. \(\,\) \begin{align*} && 0 &= \frac{\d y}{\d x} +f(x) y \\ \Rightarrow && \int -f(x) \d x &= \int \frac1y \d y\\ \Rightarrow && -F(x) & = \ln y + C \\ x=0,y=1: && C &= -F(0) \\ \Rightarrow && y &= \exp(F(0)-F(x)) \end{align*} Well this \(F(0)-F(x)\) is equivalent to \(-F(x)\) where \(F(0) = 0\), in particular \(F(n) = nF(1)\), so \(y(n) = e^{-nF(1)}\) which tends to zero as long as \(F(1) > 0\), but since \(f(x) > 0\) for all \(x\) this must be true.
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Show LaTeX source
Problem source
The function $\f$ satisfies $\f(x+1)= \f(x)$ and $\f(x)>0$ for all $x$. 
\begin{questionparts}
\item
Give an example of such a function.
\item
The function $\F$ satisfies
\[
\frac{\d \F}{\d x} =\f(x)
\]
and $\F(0)=0$.
Show that $\F(n) = n\F(1)$, for any positive integer $n$.
\item
Let $y$ be the solution of the differential equation
\[
\frac{\d y}{\d x} +\f(x) y=0
\]
that satisfies $y=1$ when $x=0$. Show that $y(n) \to 0$ as $n\to\infty$, where
$n= 1,\,2,\, 3,\, \ldots$ 
\end{questionparts}
Solution source
\begin{questionparts}
\item $f(x) = \lfloor x \rfloor+1$

\item Clearly $\displaystyle F(x) = \int_0^x f(t) \d t$, in particular:
\begin{align*}
&& F(n) &= \int_0^n f(t) \d t \\
&&&= \sum_{i=1}^n \int_{i-1}^i f(t) \d t \\
&&&= \sum_{i=1}^n \int_{0}^1 f(t-i+1) \d t \\
&&&= \sum_{i=1}^n \int_{0}^1 f(t) \d t \\
&&&= n \int_{0}^1 f(t) \d t\\
&&&= n F(1)
\end{align*}

\item $\,$
\begin{align*}
&& 0 &= \frac{\d y}{\d x} +f(x) y \\
\Rightarrow && \int -f(x) \d x &= \int \frac1y \d y\\
\Rightarrow && -F(x) & = \ln y + C \\
x=0,y=1: && C &= -F(0) \\
\Rightarrow && y &= \exp(F(0)-F(x))
\end{align*}

Well this $F(0)-F(x)$ is equivalent to $-F(x)$ where $F(0) = 0$, in particular $F(n) = nF(1)$, so

$y(n) = e^{-nF(1)}$ which tends to zero as long as $F(1) > 0$, but since $f(x) > 0$ for all $x$ this must be true.

\end{questionparts}