A thin beam is fixed at a height \(2a\) above a horizontal plane. A uniform straight rod \(ACB\) of length \(9a\) and mass \(m\) is supported by the beam at \(C\). Initially, the rod is held so that it is horizontal and perpendicular to the beam. The distance \(AC\) is \(3a\), and the coefficient of friction between the beam and the rod is \(\mu\). The rod is now released. Find the minimum value of \(\mu\) for which \(B\) strikes the horizontal plane before slipping takes place at \(C\).
In a lottery, any one of \(N\) numbers, where \(N\) is large, is chosen at random and independently for each player by machine. Each week there are \(2N\) players and one winning number is drawn. Write down an exact expression for the probability that there are three or fewer winners in a week, given that you hold a winning ticket that week. Using the fact that $$ {\biggl( 1 - {a \over n} \biggr) ^n \approx \e^{-a}}$$ for \(n\) much larger than \(a\), or otherwise, show that this probability is approximately \({2 \over 3}\) . Discuss briefly whether this probability would increase or decrease if the numbers were chosen by the players. Show that the expected number of winners in a week, given that you hold a winning ticket that week, is \( 3-N^{-1}\).
A set of \(n\) dice is rolled repeatedly. For each die the probability of showing a six is \(p\). Show that the probability that the first of the dice to show a six does so on the \(r\)th roll is $$q^{n r } ( q^{-n} - 1 )$$ where \(q = 1 - p\). Determine, and simplify, an expression for the probability generating function for this distribution, in terms of \(q\) and \(n\). The first of the dice to show a six does so on the \(R\)th roll. Find the expected value of \(R\) and show that, in the case \(n = 2\), \(p=1/6\), this value is \(36/11\). Show that the probability that the last of the dice to show a six does so on the \(r\)th roll is \[ \big(1-q^r\big)^n-\big(1-q^{r-1}\big)^n. \] Find, for the case \(n = 2\), the probability generating function. The last of the dice to show a six does so on the \(S\)th roll. Find the expected value of \(S\) and evaluate this when \(p=1/6\).
The random variable \(X\) takes only the values \(x_1\) and \(x_2\) (where \( x_1 \not= x_2 \)), and the random variable \(Y\) takes only the values \(y_1\) and \(y_2\) (where \(y_1 \not= y_2\)). Their joint distribution is given by $$ \P ( X = x_1 , Y = y_1 ) = a \ ; \ \ \P ( X = x_1 , Y = y_2 ) = q - a \ ; \ \ \P ( X = x_2 , Y = y_1 ) = p - a \ . $$ Show that if \(\E(X Y) = \E(X)\E(Y)\) then $$ (a - p q ) ( x_1 - x_2 ) ( y_1 - y_2 ) = 0 . $$ Hence show that two random variables each taking only two distinct values are independent if \(\E(X Y) = \E(X) \E(Y)\). Give a joint distribution for two random variables \(A\) and \(B\), each taking the three values \(- 1\), \(0\) and \(1\) with probability \({1 \over 3}\), which have \(\E(A B) = \E( A)\E (B)\), but which are not independent.
Solution: \begin{align*} \mathbb{P}(X = x_1) &= a + q - a = q \\ \mathbb{P}(X = x_2) &= 1 - q \\ \mathbb{P}(Y = y_1) & = a + p - a = p \\ \mathbb{P}(Y = y_2) & = 1 - p \end{align*} \begin{align*} \mathbb{E}(X)\mathbb{E}(Y) &= \l qx_1 + (1-q)x_2 \r \l p y_1 + (1-p)y_2\r \\ &= qpx_1y_1 + q(1-p)x_1y_2 + (1-q)px_2y_1 + (1-q)(1-p)x_2y_2 \\ \mathbb{E}(XY) &= ax_1y_1 + (q-a)x_1y_2 + (p-a)x_2y_1 + (1 + a - p - q)x_2y_2 &= \end{align*} Therefore \(\mathbb{E}(XY) - \mathbb{E}(X)\mathbb{E}(Y)\) is a degree 2 polynomial in the \(x_i, y_i\). If \(x_1 = x_2\) then we have: \begin{align*} \mathbb{E}(X)\mathbb{E}(Y) &=x_1 \l p y_1 + (1-p)y_2\r \\ \mathbb{E}(XY) &= x_1(ay_1 + (q-a)y_2 + (p-a)y_1 + (1 + a - p - q)y_2) \\ &= x_1 (py_1 + (1-p)y_2) \end{align*} Therefore \(x_1 - x_2\) is a root and by symmetry \(y_1 - y_2\) is a root. Therefore it remains to check the coefficient of \(x_1y_1\) which is \(a - pq\) to complete the factorisation. For any two random variables taking two distinct values, we can find \(a, q, p\) satisfying the relations above. We also note that \(X\) and \(Y\) are independent if \(\mathbb{P}(X = x_i, Y = y_i) = \mathbb{P}(X = x_i)\mathbb{P}(Y = y_i)\). Since \(x_1 \neq x_2\) and \(y_1 \neq y_2\) and \(\E(A B) = \E( A)\E (B) \Rightarrow a = pq\). But if \(a = pq\), we have \(\mathbb{P}(X = x_1, Y = y_1) = \mathbb{P}(X = x_1)\mathbb{P}(Y = y_1)\) and all the other relations drop out similarly. Consider \begin{align*} \mathbb{P}(A = -1, B = 1) &= \frac{1}{6} \\ \mathbb{P}(A = -1, B = -1) &= \frac{1}{6} \\ \mathbb{P}(A = 0, B = 0) &= \frac{1}{3} \\ \mathbb{P}(A = 1, B = -1) &= \frac{1}{6} \\ \mathbb{P}(A = -1, B = -1) &= \frac{1}{6} \end{align*}