Two particles move on a smooth horizontal surface.
The positions, in Cartesian coordinates, of the
particles at time \(t\)
are \((a+ut\cos\alpha \,,\, ut\sin\alpha)\) and
\((vt\cos\beta\,,\, b+vt\sin\beta )\), where \(a\), \(b\), \(u\) and \(v\) are positive
constants, \(\alpha\) and \(\beta\) are constant acute angles, and \(t\ge0\).
Given that the two particles collide, show that
\[
u \sin(\theta+\alpha) = v\sin(\theta +\beta)\,,
\]
where \(\theta \) is the acute angle satisfying \(\tan\theta = \dfrac b a\).
A gun is placed on
the top of a vertical tower of height \(b\)
which stands
on horizontal ground.
The gun fires a bullet with speed \(v\) and (acute) angle of
elevation \(\beta\).
Simultaneously, a target
is projected
from a point on the ground
a horizontal distance \(a\) from the foot of the tower.
The target is projected with speed \(u\) and (acute) angle of elevation
\(\alpha\), in a direction
directly away from the tower.
Given that the target is hit before it reaches the ground,
show that
\[
2u\sin\alpha (u\sin\alpha - v\sin\beta)>bg\,.
\]
Explain, with reference to part (i), why the target can
only be hit if \(\alpha>\beta\).
Starting with the result \(\P(A\cup B) = \P(A)+P(B) - \P(A\cap B)\), prove that
\[
\P(A\cup B\cup C) = \P(A)+\P(B)+\P(C)
- \P(A\cap B) - \P(B\cap C) - \P(C \cap A)
+ \P(A\cap B\cap C)
\,.
\]
Write down, without proof, the corresponding result for four events \(A\), \(B\), \(C\) and \(D\).
A pack of \(n\) cards, numbered \(1, 2, \ldots, n\), is shuffled and laid out in a row. The result of the shuffle is that each card is equally likely to be in any position in the row. Let \(E_i\) be the event that the card bearing the number \(i\) is in the \(i\)th position in the row. Write down the following probabilities:
\(\P(E_i)\);
\(\P(E_i\cap E_j)\), where \(i\ne j\);
\(\P(E_i\cap E_j\cap E_k)\), where \(i\ne j\), \(j\ne k\) and \(k\ne i\).
Hence show that the probability that at least one card is in the same position as the number it bears is
\[
1 - \frac 1 {2!} + \frac 1{3!} - \cdots + (-1)^{n+1} \frac 1 {n!}\,.
\]
Find the probability that exactly one card is in the same position as the number it bears
Solution: \begin{align*}
&& \mathbb{P}(A \cup B \cup C) &= \mathbb{P}(A \cup B) + \mathbb{P}(C) - \mathbb{P}((A \cup B) \cap C) \tag{applying with \(A\cup B\) and \(C\)} \\
&&&= \mathbb{P}(A \cup B) + \mathbb{P}(C) - \mathbb{P}((A \cap C) \cup (B \cap C)) \\
&&&= \mathbb{P}(A)+\mathbb{P}(B) - \mathbb{P}(A\cap B) + \mathbb{P}(C) - \mathbb{P}((A \cap C) \cup (B \cap C)) \tag{applying with \(A\) and \(B\)}\\
&&&= \mathbb{P}(A)+\mathbb{P}(B) - \mathbb{P}(A\cap B) + \mathbb{P}(C) - \left ( \mathbb{P}(A \cap C) +\mathbb{P}(B \cap C) - \mathbb{P}( (A \cap C) \cap (B \cap C) )\right) \\
&&&= \mathbb{P}(A)+\mathbb{P}(B) +\mathbb{P}(C)- \mathbb{P}(A\cap B)- \mathbb{P}(A \cap C) -\mathbb{P}(B \cap C)+\mathbb{P}( A \cap B \cap C)
\end{align*}
\[ \mathbb{P}(A_1 \cup A_2 \cup A_3 \cup A_4) = \sum_i \mathbb{P}(A_i) - \sum_{i \neq j} \mathbb{P}(A_i \cap A_j) + \sum_{i \neq j \neq j} \mathbb{P}(A_i \cap A_j \cap A_k) - \mathbb{P}(A_1 \cap A_2 \cap A_3 \cap A_4) \]
First notice that the probability that \(k\) (or more) cards are in the correct place is \(\frac{(n-k)!}{n!}\) (place the other \(n-k\) cards in any order. We are interested in:
\begin{align*}
\mathbb{P} \left ( \bigcup_{i=1}^n E_i \right) &= \sum_{i} \mathbb{P}(E_i) - \sum_{i \neq j} \mathbb{P}(E_i \cap E_j) + \sum_{i \neq j \neq k} \mathbb{P}(E_i \cap E_j \cap E_k) - \cdots \\
&= \sum_i \frac1n - \sum_{i\neq j} \frac{1}{n(n-1)} + \sum_{i \neq j \neq k} \frac{1}{n(n-1)(n-2)} - \cdots + (-1)^{k+1} \sum_{i_1 \neq i_2 \neq \cdots \neq i_k} \frac{(n-k)!}{n!} + \cdots\\
&= 1 - \binom{n}{2} \frac{1}{n(n-1)} + \binom{n}{3} \frac{1}{n(n-1)(n-2)} - \cdots + (-1)^{k+1} \binom{n}{k} \frac{(n-k)}{n!} + \cdots \\
&= 1 - \frac12 + \frac1{3!} - \cdots + (-1)^{k+1} \frac{n!}{k!(n-k)!} \frac{(n-k)!}{n!} + \cdots \\
&= 1 - \frac1{2!} + \frac1{3!} - \cdots + (-1)^{k+1} \frac{1}{k!} + \cdots + (-1)^{n+1} \frac{1}{n!}
\end{align*}
The probability exactly one card is in the right place is the probability none of the other \(n-1\) are in the right place, which is:
\(\frac1n \left (1 - \left (1 - \frac1{2!} + \frac1{3!} - \cdots + (-1)^{k+1} \frac{1}{k!} + \cdots + (-1)^{n} \frac{1}{(n-1)!} \right) \right)\)
but there are also \(n\) cards we can choose to be the card in the right place, hence
\(\frac{1}{2!} - \frac{1}{3!} + \cdots +(-1)^n \frac{1}{(n-1)!}\)
The random variable \(X\) has a binomial distribution with parameters \(n\) and \(p\), where \(n=16\) and
\(p=\frac12\). Show, using an approximation in terms of the standard normal
density function $\displaystyle
\tfrac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi}} \, \e ^{-\frac12 x^2}
$, that \[
\P(X=8) \approx \frac 1{2\sqrt{2\pi}}
\,.
\]
By considering a binomial distribution with parameters \(2n\) and \(\frac12\), show that
\[
(2n)! \approx \frac {2^{2n} (n!)^2}{\sqrt{n\pi}} \,.
\]
By considering a Poisson distribution with parameter \(n\), show that
\[
n! \approx \sqrt{2\pi n\, } \, \e^{-n} \, n^n \,.
\]